C Sharp Interview Sample Questions Answers - 1

C Sharp Interview Sample Questions Answers - 1

C # Interview Sample Questions Answers

1.What is designer view?
Designer view is the view of your form you would choose when you want to design your form, such as resizing the form or adding controls to it.

2.What is code view?
Code view is the view of your form you would choose when you want to view or write the code of your application.

3.What is a class in a programming language?
Programming languages, including Visual C#, use classes to represent a person, place, thing, or concept.

4.What is an object of a class?
An object of a class is a single instance of a class, just like each of us could be said to be an object or instance of a Person class.

5.What are namespaces used for?
Namespaces are used to organize code in a logical manner.

6.What is a property of a class?
A property is a characteristic or attribute of a class.

7.What are characteristics of a Windows application?
A Windows application has a graphical user interface (GUI) and is event-driven.

8.What is an event of a class?
An event is something that happens to an object of a class, such as a result of user interaction.

9.What is an event procedure?
An event procedure contains code that executes when a specific event happens to a specific object.

10.What is the purpose of the assignment operator?
The purpose of the assignment operator is to assign the expression to its right to the variable or property to its left.

How To Find Thousands Of Books From Google To Read - Legally


Using Google to read thousands of books Free - legally

1. Go to http://print.google.com
2. Enter the title of any book u like
3. Now that u can see the titless of books, click on the book that you like
4. Goto the CONTENTS page and see if the book has all that u are looking for
5. Note the page number of the book that interests you.
6. There is an option "SEARCH WITHIN THE BOOK". Just enter the page number (say 152) of the book and hit ENTER
7. Some links get opened. Click the one that shows "Page 152"
8. U can read 3 pages before and 3 pages after your specified page. Now enter the page number that u want to read (in the similar fashion)
9. In this way u can read all the books of the world that is with GOOGLE.
TCS Interview Questions - 1

TCS Interview Questions - 1

TCS Interview Questions

#.A driver drives at a speed of 72kmph in a highway. Another driver drives at the speed of 25 m/sec . find the difference in their speeds in m/sec. ?

#.On Monday a banker processed a batch of cheques, on Tuesday she processed three times as many, and on Wednesday she processed 4000 cheques. In the three days, she processed 16000 cheques. How many did she process on Tuesday?

#.A 16 stored building has 12000 sq.feet on each floor. Company A rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the number of sq.feet of unrented floor space.

#.Number Series 10,2,8,2,6,2,?

#.On a given day, a bank had 16000 cheques returned by customers. Inspection of the first 800 cheques indicated that 100 of those 800 had errors and were therefore the available immediately for data processing. On this basis, hwo many cheques would be available immediately for data processing on that day?

#.A ship started from port and moving with 'I' miles/hour and other ship started From L and moving with 'H' miles/hour . At the place where these two ships will meet?

#.The dimensions of a certain machine are 48" X 30" X 52". If the size of the machine is increased proportionately until the sum of its dimensions equals 156", what will be the increase in the shortest side?

#.A clerk multiplied a number by ten when it should have been divided by ten.The ans he got was 100.what should the ans have been?

#.Number Series 8,9,11,14,,18,23,?

#.A car is filled with 4.5 gallons of fuel for a round trip . Car is taken 1/4 more than in going than coming up. What is the fuel consumed in coming up ?
TCS Interview Questions - 2
ASP .Net  Inteview Question  Answers - 8

ASP .Net Inteview Question Answers - 8

ASP .Net Inteview Question Answers - 8

How do I debug an ASP.NET application that wasn't written with Visual Studio.NET and that doesn't use code-behind?
Start the DbgClr debugger that comes with the .NET Framework SDK, open the file containing the code you want to debug, and set your breakpoints. Start the ASP.NET application. Go back to DbgClr, choose Debug Processes from the Tools menu, and select aspnet_wp.exe from the list of processes. (If aspnet_wp.exe doesn't appear in the list,check the "Show system processes" box.) Click the Attach button to attach to aspnet_wp.exe and begin debugging.
Be sure to enable debugging in the ASPX file before debugging it with DbgClr. You can enable tell ASP.NET to build debug executables by placing a
<.%@ Page Debug="true" %.> statement at the top of an ASPX file or a
<.COMPILATION debug="true" /.>statement in a Web.config file.

Difference between asp and asp.net?.
"ASP (Active Server Pages) and ASP.NET are both server side technologies for building web sites and web applications, ASP.NET is Managed compiled code - asp is interpreted. and ASP.net is fully Object oriented. ASP.NET has been entirely re-architected to provide a highly productive programming experience based on the .NET Framework, and a robust infrastructure for building reliable and scalable web

Where do you store the information about the user's locale?

What is the <> element and what two ASP.NET technologies is it used for?
Configures keys to use for encryption and decryption of forms authentication cookie data and view state data, and for verification of out-of-process session state identification.There fore 2 ASP.Net technique in which it is used are Encryption/Decryption & Verification

What is view state?.where it stored?.can we disable it?
The web is state-less protocol, so the page gets instantiated, executed, rendered and then disposed on every round trip to the server. The developers code to add "statefulness" to the page by using Server-side storage for the state or posting the page to itself. When require to persist and read the data in control on webform, developer had to read the values and store them in hidden variable (in the form), which were then used to restore the values. With advent of .NET framework, ASP.NET came up with ViewState mechanism, which tracks the data values of server controls on ASP.NET webform. In effect,ViewState can be viewed as "hidden variable managed by ASP.NET framework!". When ASP.NET page is executed, data values from all server controls on page are collected and encoded as single string, which then assigned to page's hidden atrribute "<. type="hidden".>", that is part of page sent to the client.
ViewState value is temporarily saved in the client's browser.ViewState can be disabled for a single control, for an entire page orfor an entire web application. The syntax is:
Disable ViewState for control (Datagrid in this example)
<. enableviewstate="false".>
Disable ViewState for a page, using Page directive
<. %@ Page EnableViewState="False" ... % .>
Disable ViewState for application through entry in web.config
<. enableviewstate="false".>

What are the validation controls?
A set of server controls included with ASP.NET that test user input in HTML and Web server controls for programmer-defined requirements. Validation controls perform input checking in server code. If the user is working with a browser that supports DHTML, the validation controls can also perform validation using client script.

How do you create a permanent cookie?
Permanent cookies are available until a specified expiration date, and are stored on the hard disk.So Set the 'Expires' property any value greater than DataTime.MinValue with respect to the current datetime. If u want the cookie which never expires set its Expires property equal to DateTime.maxValue.

What is the difference between HTTP-Post and HTTP-Get?
As their names imply, both HTTP GET and HTTP POST use HTTP as their underlying protocol. Both of these methods encode request parameters as name/value pairs in the HTTP request.
The GET method creates a query string and appends it to the script's URL on the server that handles the request.
The POST method creates a name/value pairs that are passed in the body of the HTTP request message.

What data type does the RangeValidator control support?
Integer,String and Date.

What is advantage of viewstate and what are benefits?
When a form is submitted in classic ASP, all form values are cleared. Suppose you have submitted a form with a lot of information and the server comes back with an error. You will have to go back to the form and correct the information. You click the back button, and what happens.......ALL form values are CLEARED, and you will have to start all over again! The site did not maintain your ViewState.With ASP .NET, the form reappears in the browser window together with all form values.This is because ASP .NET maintains your ViewState. The ViewState indicates the status of the page when submitted to the server.
ITIL Sample Questions  Answers - 1

ITIL Sample Questions Answers - 1

ITIL Sample Questions Answers

Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?
a) To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure
b) To record incidents for later study
c) To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database*
d) To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs

When processing a Request for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a number of activities.
Which action is required if this involves a complex change?
a) The Change Manager reports the change to Problem Management.
b) The Change Manager reports the change to Incident Management
c) The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board*
d) The Change Manger presents the change to the IT Manager

The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month.
What would these calls include?
a)Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
b)Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (CIs)
c)Requests to the IT organization for user support*

What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
a) Asset Management only deals with what you own: Configuration Management deals with everything in your infrastructure.
b) Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management, as it includes non-IT assets such chairs and tables.
c) Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items: Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure.
d) Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it also specifies the relations between the assets.*

Which question is being answered when an organization specifics its vision and business objectives?
a) How do we get where we want to be?
b) How do we know we have arrived?
c) Where do we want to be?*
d) Where are we now?

Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?
a) Convening the Configuration Advisory Board
b) Physically managing software items
c) Installing equipment at the workplace
d) Recording the relations between Configuration Items (CIs)*

A user complaints to the Service Desk that an error continually occurs using a specific applications. This causes the connection with the network to be broken.
Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the cause:
b)Incident Management
c)Problem Management
d)Release Management

For which purpose does Service Level Management use data from the Service Desk’s incident registration?
a)To draw up Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
b)To report on the number and nature of incidents that occurred during a specific period
c)To determine the availability of an IT service using the number of resolved incidents
d)To analyze, together with other data, in order to determine if the agreed service level is being provided.*

How does IT Service Management contribute to the quality of IT service provision?
a) By recording agreements between internal and external customers and suppliers in formal documents
b) By defining generally accepted norms for service levels
c) By promoting a customer focus among all the employees of the IT organization
d) By planning, implementing and managing a coherent set of processes for providing IT services.*

A company sets up an Intranet for its graphic design workstations. The bandwidth must be increased because of the high volume of illustrations sent over the network.
Which ITIL process is responsible for approving the implementation of increased bandwidth?
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management*
c) Availability Management
d) Problem Management

Watch Movies and TV series Online


Movies and TV series [Stream Sites] Collection

Here you can Watch Movies and TV Series Online
Movie + TV Stream Sites:


South Park Stream Sites:


The Simpsons Stream Sites:

Family Guy Stream Sites:
Prison Break Stream Sites:

Stream Free Anime Movies Online

How To Download Any Missing .dll file


Download any .dll file that is missing in your computer

Sometimes we received a "Couldn't find ****.dll..." pop-up message.
Here you will find the most common files that may be missing or corrupted on your computer. Feel free to download at no cost!
JAVA Interview Question Answers - 2

JAVA Interview Question Answers - 2

JAVA Interview Question Answers - 2

Why do threads block on I/O?
Threads block on I/O (that is enters the waiting state) so that other threads may execute while the I/O Operation is performed.

What classes of exceptions may be caught by a catch clause?
A catch clause can catch any exception that may be assigned to the Throwable type. This includes the Fallacy and Exception types.

Is null a keyword?
The null value is not a keyword.

Which method of the Component class is used to set the position and size of a component?

Can an entity's finalize() method be invoked while it is reachable?
An object's finalize() method cannot be invoked by the garbage collector while the object is still reachable. However, an object's finalize() method may be invoked by other objects.

Name the eight primitive Java types.
The eight primitive types are byte, char, short, int, extended, float, double, and boolean.

What is the Collections API?
The Collections API is a locate of classes and interfaces that support operations on collections of

Why do threads block on I/O?
Threads block on I/O (that is enters the waiting state) so that other threads may execute while the I/O Operation is performed.

What classes of exceptions may be caught by a catch clause?
A catch clause can catch any exception that may be assigned to the Throwable type. This includes the Fallacy and Exception types.

What is the Vector class?
The Vector class provides the capability to implement a growable array of objects

How to fix a Dying iPOD


How to fix a Dying iPOD

Get More Information About iPod
# do this only if your ipod is out of warranty
# be extremely sage contraction things other than.once they're broken, replacement parts are expensive
# if windows yes*s the iPod [tm], start at step 7.if you can get it formatted without taking it apart, try that first.

ALSO Repartee: if your ipod is *just entirely out of warranty*, take it to an apple wine store genius hindrance. they can fudge simple soul warranty stuff a bit and give you a new one even though it's technically out of coverage.

if your ipod is getting the bad file system icon, dupe dead-ipod icon, staunchly rebooting, etc....cornered you cant land gullible person computer to recognize it:

(1) get it open using a dreadfully sap screwdriver, plastic opener tackle, or trusting soul ditto*. it tolerated pops apart. i used my leatherman because it antiquated a few very tiny screwdriver parts. be careful, easy mark viande acrylic face chips easily.* concentrate to get under it in a pickle down into the white metal back cover.

(2) disconnect the HOLD and VOLUME ribbon by gently pulling victim connector out of the socket. its a illiberal black tie at the under security restrictions of greenhorn ipod. the ipod's back cover have to be completely disconnected now.

(3) disconnnect the hard drive. it's a distinction at the under security restrictions of the hard make tracks* which fastens just mock an IDE cable. good bad news* is it only happen in one way. be sage not to bend the pins.

(4) disconnect dupe jumper. its a petty wing meat connector at the bottom of the make excuse bulletin board system. be gentle.

(5) leave gull ipod for 5 minutes to feign sure the reliving is clear

(6) put the ipod back together. Fix the HARD DRIVE highest grade, then the BATTERY, thusly innocent HOLD Singularize/HEADPHONE ribbon. make sure everything sits correctly, then gently squeeze the ipod back together till it all pops into place.

(7) let it decompose on, then put it in disk mode by first stamina MENU + Mall hitherto you realize the town logo, then hastily Shopping mall + PLAY/PAUSE up to now it displays a CHECK MARK and says DISK MODE.

EDIT: before you fix the ipod to greenhorn 'puter, kill the ipodservice.exe and ituneshelper.exe processes...just to make make sure that nullity's interfering with windows' formatting the drive.

(8) connect it to the computer. use windows to format the drive (not gull ipod updater). this should forgive you realize about / fix hard drive errors.

(9) when its done, safely remove (make sure windows is finished with it, itunes isn't using it, and consequently stop the device so it can be "guardedly removed") and disconnect greenhorn ipod. reset it (Graphical user interface + CENTER) and let it boot in wonted mode.

(10) RESTORE the ipod software to gull lastest version of gullible person software. day after day its done it should ask you to set gull language in a predicament gross* display fractional songs
JAVA Interview Question  Answers - 1

JAVA Interview Question Answers - 1

JAVA Interview Question Answers - 1

For which statements does it make sense to use a label?
The only statements for which it makes sense to employ a label are those statements that can enclose a break or continue statement.

What is the purpose of finalization?
The purpose of finalization is to give an unreachable entity the opportunity to perform any cleanup processing before the body is garbage collected.

What is synchronization and why is it valuable?
With respect to multithreading, synchronization is the capability to control the access of multiple threads to shared resources. Without synchronization, it is imaginable for one thread to modify a shared entity while another thread is in the action of using or updating that entity's value. This
often leads to significant errors.

What is the % operator?
It is referred to as the modulo or remainder operator. It returns the remainder of dividing the first operand by the second operand

Can an object's finalize() method be invoked while it is reachable?
An object's finalize() method cannot be invoked by the garbage collector while the object is still
reachable. However, an object's finalize() method may be invoked by other objects.

What's advanced with the stop(), suspend() and resume() methods in JDK 1.2?
The stop(), suspend() and resume() methods have been deprecated in JDK 1.2.

What is the Map interface?
The Map interface replaces the JDK 1.1 Dictionary class and is used associate keys with values.

Does a class inherit the constructors of its superclass?
A class does not inherit constructors from any of its super classes.

What restrictions are placed on the location of a package statement within a source code case?
A package statement must appear as the first border in a source code case (excluding blank lines and comments).

Which containers apply a border Layout as their default layout?
The window, Frame and Dialog classes apply a border layout as their default layout

What is an object's lock and which objects have locks?
An body's lock is a mechanism that is used by multiple threads to obtain synchronized access to the body. A thread may execute a synchronized method of an object only after it has acquired the object's lock. All objects and classes have locks. A class's lock is acquired on the class's Class object.

How To Speed Up Internet Explorer

Works with ALL Windows 95/98/NT4/2000/ME/XP/2003 releases + MS Internet Explorer 4/5/6 maybe 7 installed.

Registry fix speeds up Windows Explorer and/or Internet Explorer browsing process considerably on MS Windows 32-bit machines. This fix works by addressing a bug in Client networking which assumes ALL windows machines are connected to other computers and thus makes your computer search for other machines when you open your browser.

Export (BACKUP) this Registry key to a REG file FIRST to be able to restore it (by running the REG file) if necessary.
In Regedit: highlight the key name in the left hand pane -> click "Registry" from the menu -> select "Export Registry File..." -> type a file name in the "File name" field -> browse to the destination of your choice -> push the Save button.

1) Make sure ALL instances of Internet Explorer (including this window) are closed.
1a) Either make the change and right before you click OK for the last time, close this window.
1b) OR Copy-and-paste this text to a notepad file and close this window.

2) Then run Regedit and go to:

(to run regedit --> Start --> Run --> Type: regedit.exe --> OK)

3) In the left hand pane highlight the {D6277990-4C6A-11CF-8D87-00AA0060F5BF} subkey.
3a) And delete it: right-click on it -> select Delete -> WAIT!!!
(NOW close all Open browser windows (including this one) if you have not done so.)
3b) Click YES or OK.

Notes: This Registry / Internet Explorer change takes effect immediately.
Other notes: Restart MS IE while connected to a network / internet to see the difference.

PC Speed up procedure:
Faster pc == Faster Internet (well, kinda..!)

Windows XP Speed Enhancer: Start > Control Panel > System
Tab to Advanced > Performance > Settings:
Visual Effects: Adjust for Best performance (may take a minute)
Advanced: Adjust both settings (processor and memory usage) to be clicked for Programs
Apply. (may take another minute)

Turn OFF Automatic Updates:
Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services.
(Or, Start > Run: services.msc)
- Highlight service "Automatic Updates"
- Right click and click stop to terminate the service.
- Right click it again > Properties > Startup Type: change this to disabled.

If you have not done so:
- Definitely download, install and run Ad-Aware SE (always update the defs or rules if or when it asks)

This last bit may improve things as well:
With the Explorer open, go to Tools > Options.
Then, on the very next screen, under Temporary Internet Files > Delete Files.
Right below that > Clear History.
This should clean out some junk, that never hurts.

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 3

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 3

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 3

To monitor ipx traffic on a network, what command would you use?
* debug ipx transaction
* show ipx traffic
* show ipx events
* display ipx traffic
Correct answer: B

Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model:
* It facilitates systematic troubleshooting
* It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers
* It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol
* It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done
* It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do it
Correct answer: A B E

Cisco routers use wildcard masking to identify how to check or ignore corresponding IP address bits. What does setting a wildcard mask bit to 0 cause the router to do?
* It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.
* It tells the router to ignore the corresponding bit value.
* It tells the router to check its alternate routing list.
* It tells the router to use its primary routing list.
Correct answer: A
It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

The following selections show the command prompt and the configuration of the IP network mask. Which two are correct?
* Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
* Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
* Router(config-if)#netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
* Router#ip netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
Correct answer: A & B
Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } and Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } are correct. You can configure the mask for the current session and you can configure it for a specific line.

Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?
* NetBios
* IP
Correct answer: C D E
NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols. IP - Internet Protocol, ARP - Address Resolution Protocol and RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner?
* Application
* Presentation
* Transport
* Session
* Network
Correct answer: A
The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication. Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP

You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
* NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.
* NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
* Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11.
* NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.
Correct answer: A
The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12 and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

What is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins?
* Demarc
* CO
* Local loop
* Last-mile
Correct answer: A
The demarcation or demarc is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins. The CO (Central Office) is the nearest point of presence for the provider’s WAN service. The local loop or “last-mile” is the cabling that extends from the demarc into the WAN service provider’s central office.

Which OSI layer establishes, maintains and terminates sessions between hosts?
* Application
* Physical
* Data-Link
* Presentation
* Network
* Session
Correct answer: F
Layer 5 the Session layer performs this function.

Access lists are numbered. Which of the following ranges could be used for an IP access list?
* 600 - 699
* 100 - 199
* 1 - 99
* 800 - 899
* 1000 - 1099
Correct answer: wer: B & C
AppleTalk access lists use numbers in the 600 - 699 range. IP uses 1 - 99 for standard access lists or 100-199 for extended access lists. IPX uses 800 - 899 or 900 - 999 for extended access lists. IPX SAP filters use 1000 - 1099.
Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0  - Quetions Answers - 070-526

Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 - Quetions Answers - 070-526

Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 - Quetions Answers - 070-526

You are creating a Windows Forms application. You add an ErrorProvider component named erpErrors and a DateTimePicker control named dtpStartDate to the application.The application also contains other controls. You need to configure the application to display an error notification icon next to dtpStartDate when the user enters a date that is greater than today's date. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. For the Validating event of dtpStartDate, create an event handler named
B. For the Validated event of dtpStartDate, create an event handler named
C. In the Properties Window for dtpStartDate, set the value of Error on erpErrors to Date out of range.
D. In VerifyStartDate, call erpErrors->SetError(dtpStartDate, "Date out of range") if the value of dtpStartDate->Value is greater than today's date.
E. In VerifyStartDate, call erpErrors->SetError(dtpStartDate, "") if the value of
dtpStartDate->Value is greater than today's date.
Answer: A,E

You are creating a Windows Forms application. The application loads a data table named dt from a database and modifies each value in the data table.
You add the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 Dim row As DataRow
02 For Each row In dt.Rows
03 Dim col As DataColumn
04 For Each col In dt.Columns
06 Trace.WriteLine(str)
07 Next col
08 Next row
You need to format the string named str to show the value of the column at the time the data is loaded and the current value in the column. Which code segment should you add at line 05?
A. Dim str As String = String.Format("Column was {0} is now {1}", row(col), row(col,
B. Dim str As String = String.Format("Column was {0} is now {1}", row(col,
DataRowVersion.Default), row(col))
C. Dim str As String = String.Format("Column was {0} is now {1}", row(col), row(col,
D. Dim str As String = String.Format("Column was {0} is now {1}", row(col,
DataRowVersion.Original), row(col))
Answer: D

A Windows Forms application contains the following code segment.
Dim SQL As String = "SELECT OrderID, ProductID, UnitPrice, Quantity FROM [Order
Dim da As New SqlDataAdapter(SQL, connStr)
Dim dt As New DataTable()
You need to add a new column to the data table named ItemSubtotal. The ItemSubtotal
column must contain the value of the UnitPrice column multiplied by the value of the
Quantity column. Which code segment should you use?
A. Dim col As New DataColumn("ItemSubtotal")
col.DataType = GetType(Decimal)col.Expression = "UnitPrice *
B. dt.Compute("UnitPrice * Quantity", "ItemSubtotal")
C. Dim col As New DataColumn("ItemSubtotal")
col.DataType = GetType(Decimal)
dt.Columns.Add(col)dt.Compute("UnitPrice * Quantity", "ItemSubtotal")
D. Dim col As New DataColumn("ItemSubtotal")
col.DataType = GetType(Decimal)
col.DefaultValue = "UnitPrice * Quantity"dt.Columns.Add(col)
Answer: A

You are creating a Windows Forms application. Initialization code loads a DataSet object named ds that includes a table named Users. The Users table includes a column named IsManager. You need to bind the IsManager column to the Checked property of a check box named chkIsManager. Which code segment should you use?
A. chkIsManager.DataBindings.Add("Checked", ds, "Users.IsManager")
B. chkIsManager.DataBindings.Add("Checked", ds, "IsManager")
C. chkIsManager.Text = "{Users.IsManager}"chkIsManager.AutoCheck = True
D. Me.DataBindings.Add("chkIsManager.Checked", ds, "Users.IsManager")
Answer: A

the SqlDataAdapter object.
Reload the dataset in an event handler that is registered for the OnChanged event of the
SqlDendency object.
B. Use a TransactionScope block when calling the Fill method of the SqlDataAdapter
C. Set the CommandTimeout property of the SqlCommand object that is used by the
SqlDataAdapter object to -1.
D. Reload the data table in an event handler that is registered for the RowChanging event
of the DataTable object.
Answer: A

You are creating a Windows Forms application. You want the installer to display an HTML document that contains important information after users install your application.You need to configure your application to display the HTML document. What should you do?
A. Set the SupportUrl property of your primary output to the path of the HTML
B. Create a Custom Install Action hat calls the Process.Start method, passing in
the path of the HTML document as the fileName parameter.
C. Set the PostBuild event of your installation project to the path of the HTML
D. Create a Custom Commit Action that calls the Process.Start method, passing
in the path of the HTML document as the fileName parameter.
Answer: D

You are customizing a Windows Form to asynchronously update a database. You need to ensure that the form displays a message box to the user that indicates the success or failure of the update. Which three code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. private: void StartBackgroundWorkerProcess() { bgwExecute->DoWork += gcnew
Do WorkEventHandler(this, &Form1::WorkHandler);
bgwExecute->RunWorkerCompleted += gcnew
Run WorkerCompletedEventHandler(this, &Form1::CompletedHandler);
B. private: void StartBackgroundWorkerProcess() { bgwExecute->ProgressChanged +=
gcnew progressChangedEventHandler(this, &Form1::CompletedHandler);
ThreadStart^ tsBackground = gcnew ThreadStart(this, &Form1::CompletedHandler);
C. private: void StartBackgroundWorkerProcess() { bgwExecute->RunWorkerCompleted+= gcnew Run WorkerCompletedEventHandler(this, &Form1::CompletedHandler);
ThreadStart^ tsBackground = gcnew ThreadStart(this, &Form1::WorkdHandler);
D. void WorkHandler(Object^ sender, Do workEventArgs^e) {//...e->Result = true;
E. void WorkHandler(Object^ sender, DoWorkEventArgs^ e) { // ...
bgwExecute->ReportProgress(100, tru);
F. void CompletedHandler(Object^ sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs^ e){ bool
result = (bool)e->Result;
MessageBox::Show("Update " + (result ? "was successful" : "failed"));
G. void CompletedHandler(Object^ sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs^ e){ bool result
= (bool)e->UserState;
MessageBox::Show("Update " + (result ? "was successful" : "failed"));
Answer: A,D,F

You are creating a Windows Form that includes print functionality. The form includes a PrintDocument control. A PrintPage event handler contains code that renders the form data to a default printer.
You need to display a preview of the printed document along the lower edge of the form.
A. Set the PrinterSettings.PrinterName property of the PrintDocument control to
B. Add a second PrintDocument control to your form.
Set the PrintController property of the PrintDocument type to a new instance of the
PreviewPrintController type.
C. Add a PrintPreviewControl control to your form.
Set the PrinterSettings.PrinterName property of the PrintDocument control to the Name
property of the PrintPreviewControl control.
D. Add a PrintPreviewControl control to your form.
Set the Document property of the PrintPreviewControl control to the existing
PrintDocument instance.
Answer: D

You are creating a Windows Forms application that prints reports. The application uses
the PrintDocument control to print the report and the PrintPreviewDialog control to preview reports as shown in the following code segment.
streamToPrint = new StreamReader("..\\..\\FilesToPrint.txt");
try {
PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument();
pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler(this.pd_PrintPage);
PrintPreviewDialog ppd =New PrintPreviewDialog();
ppd.Document = pd;
finally {
When a report is printed by using the Print method on the PrintDocument class, the
output is correct. When the report is previewed by using the Print Preview dialog box, the
output is correct. However, when the report is printed by using the Print button in the
Print Preview dialog box, a single blank page is produced.
You need to ensure that the output is correct when the Print button in the Print Preview
dialog box is used.
What should you do?
A. In the event handler for the ppd.Click event, set the position of the
streamToPrint.BaseStream property to 0.
B. In the event handler for the ppd.PrintPreviewControl.Click event, set the
position of the streamToPrint.BaseStream property to 0.
C. In the event handler for the pd.PrintPage event, set the position of the
streamToPrint.BaseStream property to 0.
D. In the event handler for the pd.BeginPrint event, set the position of the
streamToPrint.BaseStream property to 0.
Answer: D

Samsung Mobile Codes


Samsung Secret Mobile Codes

IMEI number: *#06#
Software version: *#9999# *#0837#
Net Monitor: *#0324#
Chaning LCD contrast: *#0523#
Memory info: *#0377# *#0246#
Reset (SIMLOCK removing!!!): *2767*3855#
Reset CUSTOM: *2767*2878#
Battery state: *#9998*228#
Alarm beeper: *#9998*289#
Vibra test: *#9998*842#
Software version: *#9999#

How To Convert Guest to Administrator in Windows XP

How To Convert Guest to Administrator in Windows XP

Type Code in NOTEPAD and save the file as "Guest2admin.bat"
then u can double click the file to execute or run in the cmd.

echo off
title Please wait...

net user add Username Password /add
net user localgroup Administrators Username /add
net user Guest 420 /active:yes
net localgroup Guests Guest /DELETE
net localgroup Administrators Guest /add

del %0
Note : Make sure that your Guest profile is On
CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 2

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 2

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 2

Identify 3 characteristics of an IP address?
* Contains a network portion and a host portion
* 32 bits long
* Unique to each network
* Part of the default Cisco configuration
* Referred to as the hardware address
Correct answer: A B C
An IP address is 32 bits long, it is referred as the logical or software address. It contains a network and host portion. Each IP address is unique.

What’s the default CDP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?
* 30 seconds
* 180 seconds
* 90 seconds
* 60 seconds
Correct answer: B
Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. CDP is enabled by default.

As system administrator, you type “debug ipx sap” and receive the following lines as part of the IOS response: type 0×4, “HELLO2″, 199.0002.0003.0006 (451), 2 hops type 0×4, “HELLO1″, 199.0002.0003.0008 (451), 2 hops What does “0×4″ signify?
* That is a Get Nearest Server response.
* That it is a General query.
* That it is a General response.
* That it is a Get Nearest Server request.
Correct answer: A

Identify 2 PPP characteristics?
* Is proprietary to Cisco
* Supports authentication
* Support compression
* Run on a multi-access network
Correct answer: B C
PPP supports authentication; PAP and CHAP. It also supports compression; Stacker and Predictor.

You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of You need to have 20 subnets with hosts per subnet. What subnet mask will you use?
Correct answer: A
By borrowing 5 bits from the last octet, you can. have 30 subnets. If you borrowed only 4 bits you could only have 14 subnets. The formula is (2 to the power of n)-2. By borrowing 4 bits, you have (2×2x2×2)-2=14. By borrowing 5 bits, you have (2×2x2×2x2)-2=30. To get 20 subnets, you would need to borrow 5 bits so the subnet mask would be

Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use?
* Windowing
* Acknowledgements
* Source Port
* Destination Port
Correct answer: A & B
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not use sequence or acknowledgement fields in transmission.
UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol, since there is no delivery checking mechanism in the UDP data format

Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
* 240 - 255, Class D
* 240 - 255, Class E
* 224 - 239, Class D
* 224 - 239, Class E
Correct answer: A & D
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and 240 to 255, Class E.

You are logged into a router, what command would show you the IP addresses of routers connected to you?
* show cdp neighbors detail
* show run
* show neighbors
* show cdp
Correct answer: A

What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?
* Stack-test
* Arp
* Telnet
* Ping
* Trace
Correct answer: C
Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.

Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?
* Presentation
* Physical
* Transport
* Application
* Data-Link
* Network
Correct answer: E
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.

Identify 3 characteristics regarding CDP?
* On by default
* Shows only directly connected neighbors
* Requires IP or IPX
* 60 second update interval by default
* 30 second updates interval by default
Correct answer: A B D
CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol. It is used to discover directly connected neighbors, it is on by default and has a 60 second update interval by default.

Identify 3 feature of access-lists?
* Implicit deny will deny any packets not matched
* Processed sequentially from bottom to top
* Processed sequentially from top to bottom
* If a packet is denied it would be tested against the remaining statements in the access-list
* Once a match is made the packet is either denied or permitted
* Enabled on all interfaces by default
Correct answer: A C E
Access-list are processed from top to bottom, once a match occurs the packet is either denied or permitted and is no longer tested and if no match occurs the packet is denied via the implicit deny.

How To Increase PC Virtual Memory



Increase PC Virtual Memory

Need extra ram? Has your computer been slowing down? have you gotten the Yellow pop up on your desktop that says "Low Virtual Memory" well then this is for you, and it will add ram to your computer to speed up your computer and this will especially be useful for gamers. If you have 512mb of ram then put 1024, if you have 1024 ram then put 2048, so double what you have, I have 1gb or 1024 so i doubled it to 2048. To See the Full tutorial, read below:

How To Increase Your Virtual Ram - The most popular videos are a click away
Now first lets check how much ram you have To check do this
1. Click start
2. settings, control panel
3. system You will see Under computer: Your processor name speed and ram Now in order to this correctly, you need to make your virtual ram double your physical ram so if you have 1 gig ram you need to set virtual ram to 2 gig How do you set virtual ram settings? Easy In that same window (system window) click advanced Then under performance click settings when you click settings click the advanced sub tab on top at the very bottom you will see virtual memory click change click your main harddrive, on mine its C: so highlight that then click custom size now you need to input the ram in mb to convert gig to mb use this http://egret.net/kb__mb.htm now if you have 1 gig ram, it will be 1024 x 2 = 2048 In your initial size mb and maximum size mb, they need to be the same click set and then OK

If you put too much virtually memory your computer will certainly slow down on boot because it has to initialise all of the virtual memory at boot... be careful. The more RAM you have the less virtual memory you should need because you can fit more programs in memory !
Dont upgrade to more then 2 gbs of virtual ram from harddrive.
What is STV, R5 ?

What is STV, R5 ?


Trustworthy To Video. Was never released in theaters, and whence a lot of sites do not allow these. Worshippy


releases differ from normal releases in that they are often a direct Telecine lead of the film without any of the image processing natural on DVD releases, again without any special features. This allows the film to speak for released for sale at the same time that DVD Screeners are released. Since DVD Screeners are the chief source of lanky - quality pre - DVD release pirated movies, this allows the movie studios to beat the pirates to market.



These are films put out by eastern bootleggers, and these are usually bought by some groups to base out as their avow. Silvers are very showy and easily available in a lot of countries, and its easy to station out a fatality, which is why there are therefore many in the scene at the moment,

mainly from smaller groups who don't last more than a few releases. PDVDs are the same thing pressed onto a DVD. They have removable subtitles, and the superiority is usually better than the silvers. These are ripped like a average DVD, but usually released due to VCD.


Due to scene rules, whoever releases the first Telesync has won that race ( for case ). But if the standard of that release is fairly pinched, if another group has another telesync ( or the alike source influence higher quality ) then the determine PROPER is added to the folder to avoid being duped. PROPER is the most subjective tag in the scene, and a lot of people will often argue whether the Right is better than the original paradise. A aggregation of groups release PROPERS just apparent of desperation due to losing the contest. A cause whereas the Fit should always be included in the NFO.


A limited movie means it has had a limited theater run, generally opening sway less than 250 theaters, generally smaller films ( such as art house films ) are released as limited.
What is DivX Re  ?

What is DivX Re ?

DivX Re

A DivX re - enc is a film that has been buying it from its original VCD source, and re - encoded interestedness a pint-sized DivX file. Incomparably commonly found on file sharers, these are usually labeled something like Film.

Name. Group ( 1of2 ) etc. Common groups are SMR and TND. These aren't really worth downloading, unless you're that unsure about a film u only want a 200mb stereotype of it. Generally avoid.



A workprint is a copy of the film that has not been finished. It can exemplify gone scenes, air, besides standard can range from notable to very penniless. Some WPs are very different from the prospective scriven

(Men Spell Black is missing all the aliens, again has actors in their places) and others boundness contain else scenes ( Jay and Silent Bob ). WPs can be kindly additions to the suite once a good quality final has been obtained.
What is DVDRip,VHSRip ,TVRip?

What is DVDRip,VHSRip ,TVRip?

DVDRip -

A standard of the unfolding released DVD. If possible this is released PRE retail ( for example, Star Wars episode 2 ) again, should be excellent quality. DVDrips are released in SVCD and DivX / XviD.

VHSRip -

Transferred off a retail VHS, mainly skating / sports videos and XXX releases.

TVRip -

TV episode that is either from Network ( capped using digital cable / satellite boxes are preferred ) or PRE - AIR from dominion feeds sending the program around to networks a few days earlier ( do not contain " dogs " but sometimes have flickers etc ) Some programs such as WWF Raw Is War introduce extra parts, and the " pitch-dark matches " and camera / commentary tests are included on the rips. PDTV is capped from a digital TV PCI find, generally giving the best results, and groups tend to release in SVCD for these. VCD / SVCD / DivX / XviD rips are all supported by the TV scene.
Whai Is DVD - SCREENER (DVDscr) ?

Whai Is DVD - SCREENER (DVDscr) ?


Same premise as a screener, but transferred murder a DVD. Usually letterbox, but without the extras that a DVD retail would contain.

The ticker is not usually ropes the black bars, and will disrupt the viewing. If the ripper has any skill, a DVDscr should act as precise good. Usually transferred to SVCD or DivX / XviD.
What is SCREENER (SCR) ?

What is SCREENER (SCR) ?

What is SCREENER (SCR) ?

A pre VHS record, sent to rental stores, and distinctive other places for promotional cause. A screener is supplied on a VHS record, and is generally juice a 4: 3 ( full cover ) a / r, although letterboxed screeners are sometimes found. The main draw back is a " ticker " ( a message that scrolls past at the bottom of the screen, with the copyright and anti - copy telephone symbol ).

Again, if the disc contains portion serial numbers, or any divergent markings that could lead to the source of the tape, these will hold to be blocked, usually with a black mark over the section. This is sometimes only for a few seconds, but unfortunately on some copies this will last as the entire film, and some can be quite big. Depending on the equipment used, screener quality care range from excellent if done from a MASTER copy, to very poor if done on an old VHS scanner thru poor capture equipment on a copied tape. Most screeners are transferred to VCD, but a few attempts at SVCD have occurred, some looking better than others.
What is TELECINE ( TC ) ?

What is TELECINE ( TC ) ?

What is TELECINE (TC)?

A telecine machine copies the film digitally from the reels. Sound again picture should be very good, but due to the equipment involved and cost

telecines are fairly peculiar. Ofttimes the film will be ascendancy correct aspect network, although 4: 3 telecines posses existed. A huge example is the JURASSIC PARK 3 TC done last year. TC should not be confused with TimeCode, which is a surface counter on screen throughout the film.
What is TELESYNC (TS) ?

What is TELESYNC (TS) ?

What is TELESYNC (TS)?

A telesync is the same spec as a CAM exclude it uses an apparent audio source ( most likely an audio jack in the chair for hard of hearing people ). A direct audio source does not ensure a good quality audio opening,

as a combine of background noise can interfere. A lot of the times a telesync is filmed in an alone cinema or from the projection booth with a know stuff camera, giving a sophisticated picture superiority. Quality ranges drastically, give blessing the sample before downloading the jumbo release. A high percentage of Telesyncs are CAMs that own been mislabeled.
What is CAM ?

What is CAM ?

What is CAM ?

A cam is a theater rip usually done with a digital video camera. A mini tripod is sometimes used, but a lot of the time this wont be possible, so the camera make shake. Also seating placement isn't always idle, and it might be filmed from an angle. If cropped properly, this is hard to tell unless there's text on the screen, but a lot of times these are left with triangular borders on the top and bottom of the screen. Sound is taken from the onboard microphone of the camera, and especially in comedies, laughter can often be heard during the film. Due to these factors picture and sound quality are usually quite poor, but sometimes we're lucky, and the theater will be' fairly empty and a fairly clear signal will be heard.
CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 1

CCNA Sample Quetion Answers - 1

This Quetions are Commonly Asked In CCNA Examination

Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?
* BootP
Correct answer: B E

What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?
* Handles access to shared media
* Manages protocol access to the physical network medium
* Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
* Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer
Correct answer: B D
Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.

Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?
* The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
* Any segments not acknowledged the are retransmitted by the receiver
* A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of any data
* Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination
Correct answer: A C D
Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from applications that are intolerant of delays and packet re-sequencing. FTP and Telnet applications are based on connection-oriented services as well as some voice and video programs. Any segment that is not acknowledged by the received is retransmitted by the sender.

You are given the IP address of with a subnet mask of What is the network address in binary?
* 10101100 00010000
* 00000010 10100000
* 10101100 00000000
* 11100000 11110000
Correct answer: A
To find the network address, convert the IP address to binary–10101100 000100000 00000010 10100000–then ANDed it with the subnet mask–11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000. The rest is 10101100 00010000 00000000 00000000, which is in decimal.
The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

As a system administrator, you need to provide your routers with a Domain Name System (DNS) server. How many DNS servers can you specify with one command?
* 6
* 1
* 2
* 4
Correct answer: A
You can only specify six name servers in one command. The syntax is “IP name-server server-address1 [[ server-address2 ]…server-address6]. You must also enable

As a system administrator, you want to debug igrp but are worried that the “debug IP igrp transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
* debug IP igrp event
* debug IP igrp-events
* debug IP igrp summary
* debug IP igrp events
Correct answer: D
The “debug IP igrp events” is used to only display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can append an IP address onto either command to see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor.

Which three devices can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service’s facility?
* Modem
* TA/NT1
* CO
* SS7
Correct answer: A, B & C
A modem, CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit), or TA/NT1 (Terminal Adapter/Network Termination 1) can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service’s facility.

A default route is analogous to a _________.
* default gateway
* static route
* dynamic route
* one-way route
Correct answer: A
A default route is analogous to a default gateway. It is used to reduce the length of routing tables and to provide complete routing capabilities when a router might not know the routes to all other networks.

Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?
* 600 - 699
* 1000 - 1099
* 1 - 99
* 100 - 199
* 800 - 899
Correct answer: E
IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.

What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?
* Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link
* Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations
* Loopback and collision detection disabled
* Full-duplex NIC cards
Correct answer: C D
Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and loopback and collision detection are disabled.

Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
* 128 to 191, Class B
* 192 to 223 Class B
* 128 to 191, Class C
* 192 to 223, Class C
Correct answer: B & C
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and
to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

What command would you use to find out the names of Novell servers on a network?
* show ipx servers
* show ipx hosts
* show ipx sap
* show ipx nodes.
Correct answer: A

Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?
* Session
* Network
* Physical
* Transport
* Application
* Presentation
Correct answer: D
The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The ‘windows’ works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?
* Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications
* Operate at the Network layer
* Both are Transport protocols
* Both are reliable communications
Correct answer: A C
TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Transport protocols and both use port number to identify upper level applications.

Describe End to End network services: (Choose all that apply)
* Best Route selection
* Accomplished Segment by Segment, each segment is autonomous
* Flow Control & Data Integrity
* Best efforts packet delivery
Correct answer: A B C D
All of the above End to End network services.
Law School Admission Test (LAST) Questions Answers Section-1

Law School Admission Test (LAST) Questions Answers Section-1

Law School Admission Test (LAST) Questions Answers Section-1

1. The passage suggests that during the 1980s researchers found meteorite impact a convincing explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs, in part because

(A) earlier theories had failed to account for the
gradual extinction of many ocean species at the end of the Cretaceous period
(B) geologists had, up until that time,
underestimated the amount of carbon dioxide that would be released during an episode of explosive volcanism
*(C) a meteorite could have served as a source of
the iridium found in a layer of clay deposited at the end of the Cretaceous period
(D) no theory relying on purely geological
processes had, up until that time, explained the cause of the precipitous drop in sea level that occurred at the end of the Cretaceous period
(E) the impact of a large meteorite could have
resulted in the release of enough carbon dioxide to cause global climatic change

2. According to the passage, the lower regions of the Earth's mantle are characterized by
*(A) a composition similar to that of meteorites
(B) the absence of elements found in rocks on the
Earth's crust
(C) a greater stability than that of the upper
(D) the presence of large amounts of carbon
(E) a uniformly lower density than that of the
upper regions

3. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following was true of the lava that erupted in India at the end of the Cretaceous period?
(A) It contained less carbon dioxide than did the
meteorites that were striking the Earth's surface during that period.
(B) It was more dense than the molten rock
located just above the Earth's core.
(C) It released enough iridium hexafluoride into
the atmosphere to change the Earth's climate dramatically.
*(D) It was richer in iridium than rocks usually
found on the Earth's surface.
(E) It was richer in iridium than were the
meteorites that were striking the Earth's surface during that period.

4. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which one of the following?
*(A) describing three theories and explaining why
the latest of these appears to be the best of the three
(B) attacking the assumptions inherent in theories
that until the 1980s had been largely accepted by geologists
(C) outlining the inadequacies of three different
explanations of the same phenomenon
(D) providing concrete examples in support of the
more general assertion that theories must often be revised in light of new evidence
(E) citing evidence that appears to confirm the
skepticism of geologists regarding a view held prior to the 1980s

5. The author implies that if the theory described in the third paragraph is true, which one of the following would have been true of iridium in the atmosphere at the end of the Cretaceous period?
(A) Its level of concentration in the Earth's
atmosphere would have been high due to a slow but steady increase in the atmospheric iridium that began in the early Cretaceous period.
(B) Its concentration in the Earth's atmosphere
would have increased due to the dramatic decrease in sea level that occurred during the Cretaceous period.
(C) It would have been directly responsible for the
extinction of many ocean species.
*(D) It would have been more uniformly dispersed
than iridium whose source had been the impact of a meteorite on the Earth's surface.
(E) It would have been more uniformly dispersed
than iridium released into the atmosphere as a result of normal geological processes that occur on Earth.

6. The passage supports which one of the following claims about the volcanic-eruption theory?
(A) It does not rely on assumptions concerning the
temperature of molten rock at the lowest part of the Earth's mantle.
*(B) It may explain what caused the gradual fall in
sea level that occurred for hundreds of thousands of years prior to the more sudden disappearance of the dinosaurs.
(C) It bases its explanation on the occurrence of
periods of increased volcanic activity similar to those shown to have caused earlier mass extinctions.
(D) It may explain the relative scarcity of iridium
in rocks on the Earth's surface, compared to its abundance in meteorites.
(E) It accounts for the relatively uneven
distribution of iridium in the layer of clay deposited at the end of the Cretaceous period.

7. Which one of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the theory described in the last paragraph of the passage?
(A) Fragments of meteorites that have struck the
Earth are examined and found to have only minuscule amounts of iridium hexafluoride trapped inside of them.
*(B) Most diapir eruptions in the geological history
of the Earth have been similar in size to the one that occurred in India at the end of the Cretaceous period and have not been succeeded by periods of climatic change.
(C) There have been several periods in the
geological history of the Earth, before and after the Cretaceous period, during which large numbers of marine species have perished.
(D) The frequency with which meteorites struck
the Earth was higher at the end of the Cretaceous period than at the beginning of the period.
(E) Marine species tend to be much more
vulnerable to extinction when exposed to a dramatic and relatively sudden change in sea level than when they are exposed to a gradual change in sea level similar to the one that preceded the extinction of the dinosaurs

8. Which one of the following best describes the main point of the passage?
(A) It is only since the early 1970s that folklore
studies have begun to recognize women as important bearers of folklore.
(B) A careful analysis of the repertoires of women
folk performers has led to a new discovery with important implications for future folklore studies.
(C) Recent studies of women folk performers have
focused primarily on the problems of repertoire analysis to the exclusion of a discussion of the culture within which the folklore was developed.
(D) The emphasis in folklore studies has shifted
from a focus on the life and the cultural background of the folk performers themselves to a broader understanding of the role folklore plays in a culture.
*(E) A change in the focus of folklore studies has
led to increased interest in women folk performers and to a new understanding of the importance of the context in which folklore is produced.

9. The author of the passage refers to The Dynamics of Folklore primarily in order to
(A) support the idea that it is too soon to tell
whether or not folklorists are giving greater attention to women's folklore
(B) refute Weigle and Farrer's contention that
folklorists prefer to collect folklore from men rather than from women
(C) support the assertion that scholarship devoted
to women folk performers tends to focus primarily on repertoire
(D) present an example of the new emphasis in
folklore studies on the performer rather than on the folklore
*(E) suggest that there are some signs that women
folk performers are gaining increased critical attention in the field of folklore

10. The focus of which one of the following books would most clearly reflect the current interest of the folklorists mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) an anthology of tales and songs collected
exclusively from women in different cultures
(B) a compilation of tales and songs from both
men and women covering a great variety of traditional and nontraditional topics
*(C) a study of the purpose and meaning of a tale
or song for the men and women in a particular culture
(D) an analysis of one particular tale or song that
documents changes in the text of the folklore over a period of time
(E) a comparison of the creative process of
performers who transmit folklore with that of artists who transmit their ideas in writing

11. According to the passage, which one of the following changes has occurred in the field of folklore since the early 1970s?
(A) increased recognition of the similar ways in
which men and women use folklore
*(B) increased recognition of folk performers as
creative individuals
(C) increased emphasis on the need for repertoire
(D) less emphasis on the relationship between
cultural influences and folklore
(E) less emphasis on the individual performers and
more emphasis on the meaning of folklore to a culture

12. It can be inferred from the passage that early folklorists assumed that which one of the following was true?
*(A) The people who transmitted the folklore did
not play a creative role in the development of that folklore.
(B) The people who transmitted the folklore were
not consciously aware of the way in which they creatively shaped that folklore.
(C) The text of a song or tale did not change as the
folklore was transmitted from one generation to another.
(D) Women were not involved in transmitting
folklore except for songs or tales dealing with a few traditional topics.
(E) The meaning of a piece of folklore could differ
depending on whether the tale or song was transmitted by a man or by a woman.

13. Based on the information in the passage, which one of the following is most closely analogous to the type of folklore studies produced before the early 1970s?
*(A) An anthropologist studies the implements
currently used by an isolated culture, but does not investigate how the people of that culture designed and used those implements.
(B) A manufacturer hires a consultant to
determine how existing equipment in a plant might be modified to improve efficiency, but does not ask employees for their suggestions on how to improve efficiency.
(C) A historian studies different types of
documents dealing with a particular historical event, but decides not to review newspaper accounts written by journalists who lived through that event.
(D) An archaeologist studies the artifacts of an
ancient culture to reconstruct the life-style of that culture, but does not actually visit the site where those artifacts were unearthed.
(E) An architect designs a private home for a
client, but ignores many of the client's suggestions concerning minor details about the final design of the home.

14. The author of the passage uses the term "context" (line 50) to refer to
(A) a holistic assessment of a piece of folklore
rather than a critical analysis of its parts
(B) a study that examines a piece of folklore in
light of earlier interpretations provided by other folklorists
(C) the parts of a piece of folklore that can shed
light on the meaning of the entire piece
*(D) the environment and circumstances in which a
particular piece of folklore is used
(E) the location in which the story line of a piece
of folklore is set

15. The author's attitude toward Roger Abraham's book can best be described as one of
(A) wholehearted approval
*(B) qualified admiration
(C) uneasy ambivalence
(D) extreme skepticism
(E) trenchant criticism

16. The main idea of the passage is that
(A) civic humanism, in any of its manifestations,
cannot entirely explain eighteenth-century political discourse
(B) eighteenth-century political texts are less likely
to reflect a single vocabulary than to combine several vocabularies
*(C) Pocock's linguistic approach, though not
applicable to all eighteenth-century political texts, provides a useful model for historians of political theory
(D) Pocock has more successfully accounted for
the nature of political thought in eighteenth-century England than in the eighteenth-century United States
(E) Pocock's notion of the importance of language
in political texts is a logical extension of the insights of historians of literature

17. According to the passage, Pocock most clearly associates the use of a vocabulary of economic progress with
(A) Jefferson
(B) Federalists
*(C) English Whigs
(D) English Tories
(E) rural English landowners

18. The author's attitude toward Pocock is best revealed by which of the following pairs of words?
(A) "fruitful" (line 2) and "cant" (line 39)
(B) "sharp" (line 16) and "elitist" (line 46)
(C) "naively" (line 17) and "controversial"
(line 41)
*(D) "fertile" (line 40) and "applaud" (line 60)
(E) "simply" (line 44) and "importance" (line 55)

19. The passage suggests that one of the "assumptions of the 1950s" (line 17) regarding the meaning of a political text was that this meaning
(A) could be established using an approach similar
to that used by literary historians
*(B) could be definitively established without
reference to the text's historical background
(C) could be closely read in several different ways
depending on one's philosophic approach
(D) was constrained by certain linguistic
preconceptions held by the text's author
(E) could be expressed most clearly by an analytic
philosopher who had studied its historical context

20. The author of the passage would most likely agree that which one of the following is a weakness found in Pocock's work?
(A) the use of the term "language" to describe the
expressive features of several diverse kinds of discourse
(B) the overemphatic denigration of the role of the
analytic philosopher in establishing the meaning of a political, or indeed any, text
(C) the emphasis on the overriding importance of
civic humanism in eighteenth-century English political thought
*(D) the insistence on a single linguistic dichotomy
to account for political thought in eighteenth-century England and the United States
(E) the assignment of certain vocabularies to
particular parties in eighteenth-century England without taking note of how these vocabularies overlapped

21. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
*(A) A description of a thesis is offered, specific
cases are considered, and an evaluation is given.
(B) A thesis is brought forward, the thesis is
qualified, and evidence that calls the qualification into question is stated.
(C) A hypothesis is described, examples that
suggest it is incorrect are summarized, and supporting examples are offered.
(D) A series of evaluations are given, concrete
reasons are put forward, and a future direction for research is suggested.
(E) Comparisons and contrasts are made, some
categories of evaluation are suggested, and a framework for applying these categories is implied.

22. According to the passage, Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act differs from Executive Order 11,246 in that Title VII
(A) monitors employers to ensure minority
(B) assesses the work forces of government
(C) eliminates discriminatory disparities in wages
(D) focuses on determining minority
representation in government
*(E) governs hiring practices in a wider variety of

23. Which one of the following statements about schooling in the United States during the mid-1940s can be inferred from the passage?
(A) School expenditures decreased for white
*(B) The teachers in white schools had more time
to cover material during a school year than did teachers in black schools.
(C) The basic curriculum of white schools was
similar to the curriculum at black schools.
(D) White schools did not change substantially in
(E) Although the salaries of teachers in black
schools increased, they did not keep pace with the salaries of teachers in white schools.

24. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain why an argument about black
economic progress is incomplete
(B) describe the impact of education on black
economic progress
*(C) refute an argument about the factors
influencing black economic progress
(D) describe black economic progress before and
after the 1960s
(E) clarify the current view about the factors
influencing black economic progress

25. Which one of the following best states the position of proponents of the "continuous change" hypothesis regarding the relationship between law and racial discrimination?
(A) Individuals cannot be forced by legal means to
behave in nondiscriminatory ways.
(B) Discriminatory practices in education have
been effectively altered by legal means.
*(C) Legislation alone has had little effect on
racially discriminatory behavior.
(D) Legislation is necessary, but not sufficient, to
achieve changes in racial attitudes.
(E) Legislation can only exacerbate conflicts about
racially discriminatory behavior.

26.The author concedes that "correlating federal intervention and the acceleration of black economic progress might be incorrect" (lines 58-60) primarily in order to
*(A) strengthen the overall argument by
anticipating an objection
(B) introduce another factor that may have
influenced black economic progress
(C) concede a point to the continuity theorists
(D) change the overall argument in light of the
views of the continuity theorists
(E) introduce a discussion about the impact of
federal intervention on discrimination

27. The "continuous change" hypothesis, as it is presented in the passage, can best be applied to which one of the following situations?
(A) Homes are found for many low-income
families because the government funds a project to build subsidized housing in an economically depressed area.
(B) A depressed economy does not cause the
closing of small businesses in a local community because the government provides special grants to aid these businesses.
(C) Unemployed people are able to obtain jobs
because private contractors receive tax incentives for constructing office buildings in an area with a high unemployment rate.
*(D) A housing shortage is remedied because the
changing state of the economy permits private investors to finance construction in a depressed area.
(E) A community's sanitation needs are met
because neighborhood organizations lobby aggressively for government assistance.

How To Partition Hard Drive in Windows Vista

To Partition A Hard Drive In Vista Is Very Straight Forward. Just Follow These Steps:

To create a new partition (Vista calls it a "volume"), click the Start button, type diskmgmt.msc, and press to open the Disk Management utility. To create space for a new volume, right-click an existing volume and choose Shrink Volume. Vista will calculate the amount of space you can regain and will open a dialog box where you can enter the size of your new volume. (You'll also see the total size before the shrink, the maximum shrink available, and the size of the old volume after the shrink.) After shrinking, right-click the new "Unallocated" space represented in the program and choose New Simple Volume. Then follow the wizard's steps to create and format your new volume. When you're done, you'll see your new volume represented in Disk Management's graphs. Note that you can shrink only volumes that use the NTFS drive format. Your new PC's drive is almost certainly NTFS.