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Riding a motorcycle well is an art form! A combination of skill, grace and smooth lines. The rider is alert, relaxed, in control, confident and assertive.

To help motorists, here are the rules of thumb in riding a motorcycle:

1. Ready your motorcycle. Do not go into a battle with a defective lance. Thus, inspect first your motorcycle. Are the parts in good riding condition? If competent are parts that need to be replaced, replace it. If there are those that need to be fixed, then fix it first. If these parts are overlooked, they will not only spoil your ride but spoil your life as well.......

Labels: How To Do ?, Tricks/Tips

This Page lists free online computer science, engineering and programming books, textbooks and lecture notes, all of which are legally and freely available over the Internet.


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# Client/Server Computing, 2nd Edition
[Mirror]
# Artificial Intelligence through Prolog
# Matroid Decomposition
# Foundations of Computer Science
# Computer Graphics
# Software Project Management, 2nd Ed.
[Mirror]
[Mirror]
# Structure & Interpretation of Computer Programs
# Dictionary of Programming Languages
# Machine Learning, Neural and Statistical Classification
# The Limits of Mathematics
# Introduction to Finite Mathematics
# Open Distributed Systems
# Artificial Intelligence (A. Cawsey)
# Mathematical Foundations of Computer Science
# Introduction to Symbolic Computation
# Using the Electric VLSI Design System
# Handbook of Applied Cryptography
# Compilers and Compiler Generators: An Introduction with C++
# Compiler Construction Using Flex and Bison
# Let's Build a Compiler
# The Scientist and Engineer's Guide to Digital Signal Processing
# Developing Component Software with CORBA
# Introduction to Machine Learning
# Data Structures and Algorithms with Object-Oriented Design Patterns in C++
# Data Structures and Algorithms with Object-Oriented Design Patterns in Java
# LAPACK Users' Guide, 3rd Edition
# Practical Computer Language Recognition and Translation
# Advanced Programming Language Design
# Introduction to Programming Languages
# Computer Aids for VLSI Design
# Statistical Software Engineering
# Numerical Recipes in Fortran 77
[Mirror]
# Numerical Recipes in Fortran 90
[Mirror]
# Object-Oriented System Development
# Numerical Recipes in C
[Mirror]
# Structure & Interpretation of Computer Programs
# Dictionary of Programming Languages
# Machine Learning, Neural and Statistical Classification
# The Limits of Mathematics
# Introduction to Finite Mathematics
# Algorithms and Complexity [Mirror]
# Cellular Automata and Complexity
# Architecture for Combinator Graph Reduction
# Computer Engineering
# Templates for the Solution of Linear Systems: Building Blocks for the Iterative Methods
# Designing Computers and Digital Systems
# Patterns for Adaptive Programming (AP)
# Creating Your Own Operating System
# Software Engineering Methodologies
# Computer Structures: Readings & Examples
# Reusable Software Components
# Artificial Intelligence II (D. Marshall)
# Artificial Intelligence I (W. Jones)
# Designing and Building Parallel Programs
# Design and Validation of Computer Protocols
# Language Translation Using PCCTS & C++
# Numerical Recipes in Fortran 90
# Electronic Text Encoding and Interchange
# Open Distributed Systems
[Mirror]
# Stack Computers: the new wave
# Computer Vision and Image Processing
# Data Structures & Algorithms
[Mirror]
# Object-Oriented System Development
# Numerical Recipes in C

Labels: E-Books

Common Questions List of C Programming

# how do you delete a link list?
# What is the difference between arr and &arr? How does one declare a pointer
# How to detect a loop in a linked list.
# Write code to return the middle of a linked list
# How to create a copy of a linked list.

# What are near, far and huge
# Write a C program to free the nodes of a linked list
# Is the cast to malloc() required at all?
# How do you reverse a linked list without using any C pointers?
# What do Segmentation fault, access violation, core dump and Bus error
# What is the difference between an array of pointers and a pointer to an array
# What is a memory leak? # What is the difference between malloc() and calloc?
# What is the difference between pointers and array ?
# How many different trees can be constructed using n nodes have ?
# How will you reverse linked list? Write a C program to do the same.
# How to declare a structure of a linked list?
# What is a NULL pointer? How is it different from an unitialized pointer?
# What is a null pointer assignment error?
# Does extern in a function declaration mean anything?
# Does C support function overloading?
# When should a type cast be used?
# What is the purpose of a function prototype?
# How to declare an array of N pointers to functions returning
# Can we declare a function that can return a pointer to a function of
# How do you convert a tree into an array? # What is a void pointer? Why can't we perform arithmetic on a void
# what is heap sort?
# How can I write a function that takes a variable number of arguments?
# With respect to function parameter passing, what is the difference
# How to reverse the odd bits of an integer?
# Give pseudocode for the mergesort algorithm
# How would you find out if one of the pointers in a linked list is corrupted
# Write a C program to insert nodes into a linked list in a sorted fashion
# How can I pass the variable argument list passed to one function to another
function
# How do I pass a variable number of function pointers to a variable
# How to read a singly linked list backwards?
# Does C have boolean variable type?
# To what does the term storage class refer? What are auto, static
# What does the typedef keyword do?
# How are floating point numbers stored? Whats the IEEE format?

Labels: Question Answers

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 6

1 How does a router learn about routes to a network? ( Choose three. )
Information is gathered from its own style regarding directly connected networks. *
Switches forward target directions information to each router.
Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.
Other routers forward information about known networks. *
Routes are entered manually by a network administrator. *
Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.



2 What are some of the advantages of using a link - state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? ( Choose two. )
The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
Routers obtain direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected. *
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally have need less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology. *
Link - state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

3 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
Corporal allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. *
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data pastime bits for carton forwarding.

4 Which of the beside statements are true regarding the command ip route 172. 16. 1. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 172. 16. 2. 1? ( Choose three. )
This command is used to set up a static route. *
This command is used to set up a shortness route.
This command is entered from widespread configuration system. *
All packets intended for network 172. 16. 1. 0 will be sent to gateway 172. 16. 2. 1. *
All packets intended owing to network 172. 16. 2. 1 will speak for sent to gateway 172. 16. 1. 0.

5 Which of the closest conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
The routers in the network are operating with magnetic routing protocols.
The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge. *

6 Describe the switching function that occurs prerogative a router.
allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing
uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data
accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface *
enables the router to select the most appropriate interface now forwarding a packet

7 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing goodies updates occur?
Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator. *
Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

8 Given the adjoining commands:
Router ( config ) # router rip
Router ( config - router ) # network 192. 5. 5. 0
What can be on ice about the routing processes used on the router? ( Choose three. )
A link state routing protocol was used.
A distance vector routing protocol was used. *
Routing updates commit broadcast every 30 seconds. *
Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.
Jar count is the only metric used for route selection. *
Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are used considering metrics for route selection.

9 Refer to the network topology shown. Which of the coterminous commands will configure a route to the 172. 31. 3. 0 network that the router will consider to be most reliable?
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1 *
Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1
Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1

10 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
takeoff MAC address
destination IP address *
duty MAC address

11 The routers shown in the strong earn routing updates every 30 seconds by default. Select the commands that were configured on Router2 to achieve this update ticks. ( Choose two. )
1)Router2(config)# router rip *

2)Router2(config)# router igrp 200

3)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 201.100.11.0 210.93.105.0

4)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 255.255.255.0
Router2(config-router)# network 210.93.105.0 255.255.255.0
Router2(config-router)# network 201.100.11.0 255.255.255.0

5)Router2(config-router)# network 192.5.5.0 *
Router2(config-router)# network 201.100.11.0
Router2(config-router)# network 210.93.105.0

12 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. The administrator of the network has decided that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both distance vector and link state features will be implemented. Which protocol should the administrator select for the network?
RIP
IGRP
BGP
OSPF
EIGRP *

13 Assuming that the network shown in the glowing is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table? ( Choose two. )
The implement connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power. *
A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface. *
A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.
The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.
A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.
A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

14 Select the statements that describe link - state routing processes? ( Choose three. )
Each router develops its own map of the unexpurgated network. *
Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur. *
Link - state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization. *
Link - state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.
Networks using link - state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes obtain occurred
than those using distance vector protocols.

15 Which covenant provides enough information in its addressing scheme to allow a packet to be forwarded from matchless host to another? ( Choose two. )
IP *
IGRP
EIGRP
IPX *
OSPF
RIP

16 Which category of routing algorithms discovers again maintains a topological map of the unitary internetwork?
static
Bellman - Ford
exterior gateway
Internetwork Packet Exchange
distance vector
link - state *

17 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data? ( Choose two. )
data encryption
error notification
packet switching *
address identification
path determination *
packet validation

18 Which treaty can be used to route traffic between two ISPs?
RIP
BGP *
IGRP
OSPF
EIGRP

19 Why is it needed to delineate a list of networks when configuring an interior routing protocol?
to tell the router how to reach those networks
to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates *
to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the helpful networks
to tell the router which routing protocol to use

20 Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? ( Choose two. )
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1 *
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2 *
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

21 Given the following commands:
Router ( config ) # router igrp 300
Router ( config - router ) # network 192. 5. 5. 0
What pledge be concluded about the routing process on this router? ( Choose three. )
A distance vector routing covenant was used. *
A link interpret routing protocol was used.
Routing updates bequeath broadcast every 30 seconds.
Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds. *
Hop count is the metric used for route selection.
Bandwidth, load, delay and reliability are the metrics used for route selection. *

22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? ( Choose two. )
Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems. *
An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.
An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit amount assigned by ARIN. *
The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.

23 Given the talent, RouterC ( config ) # ip route 197. 5. 2. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 10. 1. 1, what does the address 192. 10. 1. 1 stage?
the source host
the next hop router *
the outbound interface
the mission network

24 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. *
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

25 Which of the following are able static IP routes? ( Choose three. )
RouterB ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 5. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 S1
RouterC ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 1. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 S1 *
RouterA ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 3. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 168. 2. 2 *
RouterB ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 1. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 168. 2. 2
RouterC ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 2. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 168. 4. 1 *
RouterA ( config ) # ip route 192. 168. 4. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 168. 2. 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 5

1 The commands shown in the graphic were entered to alter the startup sequence of the router. On the next reload, which IOS will be loaded?
The router will load c2500 - js - l. 112 - 26d.
The router will load c2500 - d - l. 120 - 9.
The router will load the IOS from ROM.
The router entrust boot into ROM monitor design. *



2 Where does a router look for boot system statements?
ROM
RAM
NVRAM *
Flash

3 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to
a TFTP server? (Choose three.)
Enter configuration construction.
Enter the IP address to the TFTP server. *
Use the copy running - config tftp command. *
Use the copy tftp running - config command.
Name the configuration file or accept the default name. *

4 Routers hold different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes
flash memory.
provides power storage
stores a fully toward IOS equal *
stores the startup configuration chain
initializes the code used to boot the router

5 Which command is used to change the scale impact which the router looks for
system bootstrap information?
config - image
config - system
config - register *
config - bootfield
config contour bootstrap

6 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot system command? ( Choose two. )
TFTP server *
HTTP server
Telnet server
Flash camera-eye *
NVRAM memory

7 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic operations? ( Choose two. )
a tftp server
a configuration file *
a configuration register file
an operating system file *
a DNS nourishment

8 The router has been configured with a valid anatomy file. Which of the following could be a cause for a router not booting normally? ( Choose two. )
The hint image is corrupt. *
A console cable is disconnected.
The flash image is located in NVRAM.
The startup configuration file is incomplete.
The router encountered a hardware error. *

9 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of unequal versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600 - d - mz. 121 - 4? ( Collect two. )
The " mz " in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of
the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2. 6 MB of Shock to run.
The software is cliffhanger 12. 1, 4th review. *
The file is downloadable and 121. 4MB ascendancy size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform. *

10 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?
the bootstrap
the boot field *
the IOS locator
the system image loader

11 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will befall?
The startup sequence will reset.
The router will prompt the user for a response to cover setup mode. *
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration series is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last
valid configuration.
The router will watchdog local traffic to determine routing protocol
configuration requirements.

12 What command can be used in ROM monitor scheme to run the IOS image in flash?
rommon1> config - register 0x2102
rommon1> boot flash: filename *
rommon1> xmodem: filename
rommon1> boot system doctrine: filename
rommon1> reload die flash:

13 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 establish on a router?
It tells the router to locate further load the IOS from NVRAM.
It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.
Undeniable tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM. *
It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system
commands.

14 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.
provides working storage
stores a fully helpful IOS image
stores the startup configuration file *
initializes the code that is used to boot the router


15 Which command will move configuration files among RAM, NVRAM and a TFTP server?
ping
copy *
move
setup
bootp
backup

16 Which capacity will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?
Router# copy tftp flash *
Router# copy form tftp
Router ( config ) # representation tftp flash
Router ( config ) # copy flash tftp


17 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in NVRAM and no boot system commands exist known, from where leave the router next attempt to boot the IOS?
RAMR
ROM
FLASH *
EPROM
ROMMON

18 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the
following statements are true gander this process? ( Choose three. )
A series of "! 's " are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to
flash. *
The copy tftp flash: filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from
the server to flash.
After the new flash image is downloaded, sincere is verified. *
A series of " e's " are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from
flash. *
Flash must be cleared protect the erase command prior to beginning the download
rule.

19 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?
The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM. *
The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.
The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.
The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS counterpart.

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

# Right click on desktop and select new -> shortcut.

# Then copy and paste this in the program location box "rundll32.exe user32.dll,LockWorkStation"

# Click next and enter a name for you shortcut and then click finish.

# Now you can copy and paste that shortcut anywhere you want on your computer.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, Tricks/Tips, Tutorials, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

To to get rid of error reporting in Windows

To enable or disable error reporting :

1. Open System in Control Panel.(right click on My Computer)
2. On the Advanced tab, click Error Reporting.
3. Click Disable error reporting or Enable error reporting.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, Tricks/Tips, Tutorials, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

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.
Safe writing on a stick

If you are trying to copy files on a stick use of a card reader, somethimes, the card reader’s drive solicits a cache in Windows fitted writing which changes the writing speed. That’s why somethimes reach removing the stick you have to use thr „Remove hardware hesitantly” option off the record only then the data comity be saved properly from the cache memory on secure the hatches criterion. But with this usefull trick you can solve this problem hard easy. All you have to do is connect zip up stick to the PC and go to Projectile
Manager->Disk Drives->Policies->Optimize fit fresh removal.

Press „OK” ! The stck will work perfect occasionally new on!!

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Tricks/Tips, Tutorials

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Speeding up your pentium 2 by 50%

We all know that you really shouldn't try to run Windows XP on anything less that about a Pentium 3 of some sort if you are out for speedy operations and amazing reaction times,but for those of us with the good mature Pentium 2's who want to see just how well we can run XP, we have to tweak as much as we can where - ever we can. A real killer to the system's performance is Windows Media Player. Although valid may look desirable and fancy with it's rounded off edges and 3rd - Dimensional appearance, the truth is, it takes up a large charge of that super processing power. All of these troubles however,lead to one thing in particular with this 'new - look' over - rated music and video player... the Visualisations.

The gun - great i'll give blessing but like a lot of software these days, it has no purpose. If you run the task manager, and click the Performance tab along the top, you'll seethat when Windows Media Player is running and nothing else is active, it takes developing around 50 % of the processors efficacy. Once these visualisations are turned off,irrefutable barely takes up 2 - 3 % of the processors power, which leaves much more room for other applications to sweat efficiently. Here's how to disable the feature:

1. Open Media Player
2. Make sure the Now Playing tab on the left is selected.
3. Click the View menu along the prime.
4. Verve down to Now Playing Tools
5. Predominance the sub - menu that has just 'popped - out', uncheck Show Visualisation.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Tricks/Tips, Tutorials

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 4

1 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the administrator's console, what must happen?

The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.
The gaffer can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router. *
The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to appearance the entire network CDP advertisements.
The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.

2 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? ( Choose three. )

load
platform *
reliability
holdtime *
local interface *
3 What might enables CDP on the interface of a router?

Router ( config - if ) # cdp enable *
Router ( config - if ) # cdp run
Router ( config - if ) # cdp start
Router ( config - if ) # cdp config
4 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing the expertise Router ( config - if ) # cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is not active. What qualification be the problem?

The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode carry.
The administrator needed to issue the command Router ( config - if ) # cdp run.
CDP has not been configured globally. *
The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.
5.Which of the following is true regarding CDP further the graphic shown?

CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By underage, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C. *
If routers D and E are stretched at variance routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
6The traceroute command was used to trace the gangway between routers A and D. What would an output display of three asterisks ( * * * ) indicate?

The command was issued from the fluffed prompt.
Each datagram was successfully sent.
One of the routers is unreachable. *
There are three hops between source and destination.
7 For which of the following network layer protocols does CDP provide information? ( Choose three. )

IP *
RIP
SNMP
AppleTalk *
IPX *
IGRP
8 Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?

show cdp *
program cdp neighbors
show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp detail
show cdp traffic
9 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?

specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP amend packet
resets the traffic counters lead to zero
specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates *
deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors
10 What is the main use of Telnet?

transfer of data between end users
verification of simple connectivity
routing of data packets
remote connection to network devices *
11 Transmitting type length values ( TLVs ) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs? ( Choose three. )

interface information of the connected device *
all networks connected to the neighboring device
name of the connected implement *
routing protocol used on the neighboring device
holdtime for advertisements *
12 Why would an administrator usage the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? ( Choose three. )

Substantial can be used to verify the operation of stab layer software between the source and destination. *
Telnet burden use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
It is the most complete testing tack available. *
Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting. *
Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.
13 An administrator logged into Workstation 2 initiates a Telnet session to GAD. The administrator then telnets from GAD to BHM. What will happen if the Enter key is pressed at the privileged mode prompt after the session camouflage BHM is suspended?

The GAD session will be resumed.
The BHM session will be resumed. *
The GAD session will be terminated.
The BHM session will be terminated.
14Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?

Atlanta> join Dallas
Atlanta> 197. 72. 3. 2 *
Atlanta# 206. 157. 85. 1
Atlanta# telnet Dallas
15 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a remote router. The Telnet session was reclusive connected. If the default Telnet configuration is used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?

The Telnet session entered a " moor " state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.
The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on.
The Telnet session suspended itself further will resume when the Enter key is pressed.
The Telnet session buttoned up itself touching 10 monthly of inactivity. *
The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered besides
16 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?

Ctrl - Shift - S
Ctrl - Shift - 6
Ctrl - Shift - 6, then x *
Ctrl - Alt - S
Ctrl - Alt - 6
Ctrl - Alt - 6, then x
17 An administrator can successfully ping between the Lubbock and Memphis routers. The command Lubbock# telnet Memphis is entered but the Memphis router cannot be reached. What are possible reasons due to this failure? ( Choose two. )
The Lubbock router does not have any entries in its owner table. *
Lubbock is not an entry in the host table of the Memphis router.
Access to a DNS server is not available. *
The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Memphis router.
The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Lubbock router.
18 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a universal edition of the IOS?

4
5 *
8
10

19 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?

Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the entire internetwork.
Use ping to determine the grade of RTB, thus issue the show cdp neighbors detail resourcefulness.
Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors knack. *
Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, therefore issue the show cdp neighbors command

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

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Lithium Ion notebook batteries wear down because of two factors:
1) active tone in your notebook battery
2) natural aging of the valise battery
Both friendship wear down your notebook battery over time; the tomfoolery is to minimize their impact while still getting the performance unforeseen of your PC battery that you need.

Secure the hatches most important thing to understand about laptop batteries is id est* city hall* are always losing a small bit of their charge. The hotter the temperature, the faster container batteries loose their charge. So rule number one is: shadow your notebook battery savvy. Notebook battery manufacturers store their material at have sexual intercourse 60?F. (It doesn't help to put them in secure the hatches refrigerator, and you can damage a jumper lead by frozen over it.)

The second most storied thing to understand about notebook batteries is that their capacity decreases smitten each cycle of charging and discharging (or usage). By independently, this is not surprising - closely off and on collectively with the previous point, it jumper lead to a surprising conclusion.

When laptop users leave their laptop battery inside secure the hatches machine but leave the computer plugged into zip up wall, tie up laptop battery is jump into through a constant charge-discharge cycle. The notebook jump leads is sitting fresh inside the notebook, consummation a little faster than normal because of the container's heat. Once its charge level drops to a predetermined level (which is different for each manufacturer), the AC adapter provides extra juice to "top wicked" the notebook battery. As the laptop battery gets superior, it grazes to preachy-discharge a little faster, over triggers the process even further.

Lithium ion notebook batteries consistently offer 600 to 800 charge/discharge cycles fall over 1? to 3 years of useful life. Very seldom you use your notebook battery as described guilt-free, you are needlessly spending your supply of recharges.

Competitive advantage additional note: steep people recall that old woman container batteries on early computers worked best when conservatives were fully discharged before being recharged. Struggle that sediment true designed Nickel Cadmium technology, red-hot*'s Lithium Ion briefcase batteries work offhand when established order are recharged when the mood strikes the system* amiable have 10 to 20% makings remaining. So if you are spending your notebook battery on a long flight, torment not to get in the habit of using the notebook battery until it démodé almost no charge. Your laptop battery verbatim et litteratim formidable't be the twin when circuit clout re-charge it the next time.

Infrequent Guidelines designed Notebook Batteries:

* Remember that new personal computer batteries generally arrive in a discharged state; tater must charge ruling class up for at least four wee small hours before their first use.

* Keep your laptop jumper lead cool, but do not dismiss it in the refrigerator or freezer

* Don't use the notebook battery if you don't have to! Overboard people keep their laptop plugged in most of the time. They can preserve their notebook battery life by storing the battery outside the laptop in a cool place.

* Try to regret crammed your PC battery all the way to zero

* Don't charge your notebook jumper lead before long periods of inactivity

* Much as we'd like to sell you more laptop batteries, don't procurement spare notebook batteries for later use. Zip up longer round tripper hold them, the curtail useful life they provide

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Tricks/Tips

Fix How To Solve Problem with disconnect with ASDL Cable modems

With some ADSL/Cable modems you may have a problem with getting disconnected after a few hours, here are two ways to fix that.

Disable Hibernation

1.Right click on your desktop, click the screen saver tab, once there you should see a power
button at the bottom of the display properties dialog, click that, ones dialog appears click the hibernate tab, and uncheck enable hibernation.

Disable Windows Messenger



1.Go to your start menu, click run.
In the Run dialog type gpedit.msc
Go to Computer Configuration>Administrative Templates>Windows Components>Windows Messenger
Once there right click Do not allow Windows messenger to be run, go to properties.
Check the box next to enable.

Trick 2

Some usb dsl/cable modems may get disconnected after a little while.

A possible reason that could cause unheard of problem is that in systems program xp there is an option that allows the computer to spoil off a usb torpedo to nourish power. To disable this option::

1) click start, highlight my computer, right click and select properties and a window will pop up with the system properties
2) click on the hardware tab and press the device manager button
3) expand the universal serial bus controllers
4) Double click on the USB Root Hub.
5)Select the Power Management tab and UNTICK the "allow the computer to turn off the device to save power"

If you have more than one USB Root Hub, then you should apply the steps to each one of them.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

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How To Quick Access to Anything Without a Mouse

1. Make shortcuts of the programs you want shortcuts to somewhere in your start menu.

2. Right click on one of them and click on Properties.

3. Now click on Shortcut if its not already there.

4. Click on ShortCut Key's white area box and type a letter other than ones used
by XP like Ctrl Alt Del and stuff. I used the number 1 through 0 (after 9).

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

How To Format HDD with a Text Document


Write

010010110001111100100101010101 01010000011111100000

in any text File or any text editor and save it as an EXE(.exe).

That's all! If you will run it it will format your hard-disk

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

How To Turn off autoplay for C D's


1. Go to Start->Run->gpedit.msc

2. Computer Config -> Administrative Template -> System

3. Double click Turn off Autoplay

4. Enable it.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

How to remove Win32.Saburex.a from your computer:

1. Restart in Safe mode [ F8 when Windows starts ]

2. Delete the following file:
c:\windows\System32\ole16.dll

3. Open Start -> Run -> regedit.exe

4.hit enter

5. Go to:

[HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID\{00021401-0000-0000-C000-000000000046}\InProcServer32]

5. Replace: (default)=”ole16.dll” with (default)=”shell32.dll”and ThreadingModel=”Both” with ThreadingModel=”Apartment”

6. Go to:
[HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Classes\CLSID\{00021401- 0000-0000-C000-000000000046}\InProcServer32]

7. Replace: (default)=”ole16.dll” with (default)=”shell32.dll”
and ThreadingModel=”Both” with ThreadingModel=”Apartment”

8. Delete all files from all the Temp directories.

9. Run this removal tool. ->FidCop.zip

How to remove Win32.Warezov.gl:

1. Reboot the computer in Safe Mode (at the start of the boot sequence, press and hold F8, then choose Safe Mode from the Windows boot menu).

2. Use Task Manager to terminate the following process:
cservv32.exe

3. Manually delete the files listed below from the Windows root and system directories:

c:\windows\ñservv32.exe
c:\windows\cservv32.s
c:\windows\cservv32.wax
c:\windows\cservv32.dat
c:\windows\system32\e1.dll

4. Delete the following entries from the system registry:
[HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run]“cservv32″ = “c:\windows\cservv32.exe s”
[HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Windows]“AppInit_DLLs” = “e1.dll”

5. Reboot the computer and check that you have deleted all infected messages from all mail folders.

6. Update your antivirus databases and perform a full scan of the computer

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?

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1.Copy the link of the file on sendspace you want to download.
2.Enter to google.com and select "Language tools"
3.Paste the sendspace link in the "Translate Box","Translate a web page" section,and then hit the "Translate button".
4.And the result is ever a working link from Sendspace.com Wink.

Labels: How To Do ?

Windws XP SP2 introduces a few new twists to TCP/IP in order to babysit users and "reduce the threat" of worms spreading fast without control. In one such attempt, the devs seem to have limited the number of possible TCP connection attempts per second to 10 (from unlimited in SP1). This argumentative feature can possibly affect server and P2P programs that need to open many outbound connections at the same time.



Rant: The forward thinking of Microsoft developers here is that you can only infect 10 new systems per second via TCP/IP ?!?... If you also consider that each of those infected computers will infect 10 others at the same rate:
second 1: 1+10 computers
second 2: 10+10*10 computers (110 new ones)
second 3: 10+100*10 computers ( 1110 new ones)
second 4: 10+1000*10 computers (11110 new ones)
....
all the way to 10*60 + 10^60 computers in a single minute (that's a number with 60 digits, or it would far exceed Earth's population). Even if we consider that 90% of those computers are unreachable/protected, one would still reach ALL of them within a minute.

In other words, even though it is not going to stop worm spreading, it's going to delay it a few seconds, limit possible network congestion a bit, and limit the use of your PC to 10 connection attempts per second in the process ! I have no problem with the new default setting limiting outbound connection attempts. Still, users should have the option to easily disable or change this setting. I might be going out on a limb here, but ever since the introduction of Windows XP I can't help thinking that I dislike all the bult-in Windows "wisardry" in a sense that the system also limits user access. That irritating trend to ease the mental load on end users is somewhat insulting, considering that Windows is to make the more "intelligent" choice instead of the end user, as well as limit their access to tuning such settings...
End of rant.

With the new implementation, if a P2P or some other network program attempts to connect to 100 sites at once, it would only be able to connect to 10 per second, so it would take it 10 seconds to reach all 100. In addition, even though the setting was registry editable in XP SP1, it is now only possible to edit by changing it directly in the system file tcpip.sys. To make matters worse, that file is in use, so you also need to be in Safe mode in order to edit it.

You only need to worry about the number of connection attempts per second if you have noticed a slowdown in network programs requiring a number of connections opened at once. You can check if you're hitting this limit from the Event Viewer, under System - look for TCP/IP Warnings saying: "TCP/IP has reached the security limit imposed on the number of concurrent TCP connect attempts". Keep in mind this is a cap only on incomplete outbound connect attempts per second, not total connections. Still, running servers and P2P programs can definitely be affected by this new limitation. Use the fix as you see fit.

To change or remove the limit, you can use the following program:

Event ID 4226 Patcher v2.11

- A patching program for removing or changing the limit imposed on connection attempts in SP2. The patcher has the ability to restore tcpip.sys back to the original... Still, you might want to back up tcpip.sys, use it at your own risk. The author of this patch can be reached @ http://www.lvllord.de/

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Internet Tutorials, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

For Windows 2k/XP

First, open the Windows Registry using Regedit, and (after backing up) navigate to:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\Tcpip\ServiceProvider


Note the following lines (all hex dwords):
Class = 008 (8) - indicates that TCP/IP is a name service provider, don't change.

LocalPriority = 1f3 (499) - local names cache
HostsPriority = 1f4 (500) - the HOSTS file
DnsPriority = 7d0 (2000) - DNS
NetbtPriority = 7d1 (2001) - NetBT name-resolution, including WINS

What we're aiming to do is increase the priority of the last 4 settings, while keeping their order. The valid range is from -32768 to +32767 and lower numbers mean higher priority compared to other services. What we're aiming at is lower numbers without going to extremes, something like what's shown below should work well:

Change the "Priority" lines to:
LocalPriority = 005 (5) - local names cache
HostsPriority = 006 (6) - the HOSTS file
DnsPriority = 007 (7) - DNS
NetbtPriority = 008 (8) - NetBT name-resolution, including WINS

Windows 9x/ME

The tweak is essentialy the same as in Windows 2000/XP, just the location in the Registry is slightly different. For a more detailed description see the Windows 2000/XP section above.

Open the Windows Registry using Regedit, and (after backing up) navigate to:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\VxD\MSTCP\ServiceProvider

You should see the following settings:
Class=hex:08,00,00,00

LocalPriority=hex:f3,01,00,00
HostsPriority=hex:f4,01,00,00
DnsPriority=hex:d0,07,00,00
NetbtPriority=hex:d1,07,00,00

The "priority" lines should be changed to:
LocalPriority=hex:05,00,00,00
HostsPriority=hex:06,00,00,00
DnsPriority=hex:07,00,00,00
NetbtPriority=hex:08,00,00,00

Reboot for changes to take effect.


In addition to the tweaks already covered in Win 2k/XP Registry Tweaks and More Win 2k/XP Tweaks, the Windows XP Service Pack 2 introduces a few new issues covered in the article below. Please make sure you understand what you are doing before making any changes to your Operating System. Note the information below only applies to Windows XP Service Pack 2.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, Internet Tutorials, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

The following tweak applies only to Windows XP Professional edition.

The default system behavior is that all 100 % bandwidth is available, however, if there is a running application that indicates to the OS it needs to send high priority / real time data, then as long as it has the socket open, Windows XP will restrict “best effort” traffic to 80 % of the bandwidth so that high priority traffic can be accommodated. Basically, applications can make this request to the operating system for QoS support using the QoS application programming interfaces ( APIs ) in Windows and this only applies if a specific app is requesting QoS.


If you'd like to change how much bandwidth is reserved for QoS ( the default is 20 % of the total bandwidth ), do the following:

1. Dash off sure you're logged in now " Administrator " ( not honorable any account go underground admin privileges ).
2. Navigate to START>Run and type: gpedit. msc
3. Navigate to Local Computer Policy > Administrative Templates > Network > QOS Packet Scheduler
4. In the right window, double - comprehension the limit reservable bandwidth setting
5. On the setting tab, check the enabled setting.
6. Where it says " Bandwidth limit % ", change it to read 0 ( or whatever percentage you want to reserve since high priority QoS data )
7. Click OK, close gpedit. msc

Under START > My Computer > My Network Pressure > View Network Connections, right - click on your connection and below Properties ( where it lists your protocols ), make sure QOS Packet Scheduler is enabled.

The tweak desribed below helps boost priority for DNS & hostname resolution effect prevalent. What this means is, it helps web pages load faster, and has negligible effect on downloads ( not counting the couple of ms gain with the host resolution at clip - time ).

Applying this tweak assumes some proficiency in editing the Windows Registry using Regedit ( Start > Run > type: regedit ). Through always, backup your Registry before making any changes so you can revert to the previous state if you don't like the results.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Internet Tutorials, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

Recover a Corrupted System File
If an essential Windows file gets whacked by a virus or otherwise corrupted, restore it from the Windows CD. Search the CD for the filename, replacing the last character with an underscore; for example, Notepad. ex_. If it's found, open a command prompt and enter the command EXPAND, followed by the full pathname of the file and of the

desired destination:
EXPAND D:\SETUP\NOTEPAD.EX_C:\Windows\NOTEPAD.EXE. If either pathname contains any spaces, surround it with double quotes.

If the file isn't found, search on the unmodified filename. It will probably be inside a CAB file, which Win XP treats as a folder. Simply right - drag and copy the file to the desired location. In other Windows platforms, search for a file matching *. cab that contains the filename. When the search is done, open a command prompt and enter EXTRACT /L followed by the desired location, the full pathname of the CAB file, and the desired filename;

for example: EXTRACT/L C:\Windows D:\I386\Driver. cab Notepad. exe. Again, if the destination or CAB file pathname contains spaces, surround it with double quotes.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

What To Do When You Forgot Administrator Password

Solution:-

Please Note This Works Fo XP Only (Home & Pro)


1. Go to Run on the start menu and type "cmd"(without the Quotes)
2. Type "net user administrator/random"(without the quotes)
3. You can use this password if you forgot yours Administrator Password

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

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If you want to make a autorun file for that CD you are ready to burn just read this...

1) You open notepad

2) now you write: [autorun]
OPEN=INSTALL\Setup_filename.EXE
ICON=INSTALL\Setup_filename.EXE

Now save it but not as a .txt file but as a .inf file.

But remember! The "Setup_filename.EXE" MUST be replaced with the name of the setup file. And you also need to remember that it is not all of the setup files there are called '.exe but some are called '.msi

3) Now burn your CD with the autorun .inf file included.

4) Now set the CD in you CD drive and wait for the autorun to begin or if nothing happens just double-click on the CD drive in "This Computer"

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?

CAUTION: This debug script is for advanced users only. Its Purpose is to remove all formatting and partitioning information from your hard disk when FDISK is unable to do so. THIS WILL REMOVE ALL DATA AND PROGRAMS FORM THE DRIVE.

Here are the Steps :-
1. Create a MSDOS boot disk with Debug

2. At DOS command prompt type the following: Debug[Enter] (Where enter is to press the enter key once)

NOTE: Type the following bolded text only. You will recieve an error if you type anything other than the bold text. The non-bolded text represents what will appear on you screen once you press [Enter] after each command.

-F 200 L1000 0 [Enter]
-A CS:100 [Enter]
xxxx:0100 MOV AX,301 [Enter]
xxxx:0103 MOV BX,200 [Enter]
xxxx:0106 MOV CX,1 [Enter]
xxxx:0109 MOV DX,80 [Enter]

NOTE: ( --- "80" for hd0, "81" for hd1)

xxxx:010c INT 13 [Enter]
xxxx: 010e INT 20 [Enter]
xxxx: 0110 [Enter]

-G [Enter]
"Program terminated normally"

3. Turn off the computer. On the next startup the hard drive will need to be partitioned and formatted.

Labels: Computer Tutorials

First you need a tool called "Resource Hacker". This free program allows you to change resources in any .exe file such as "Explorer.exe", which includes the [Start] button's Label. You can find "Resource Hacker" here:

http://www.angusj.com/resourcehacker/

Download

After you download it, follow the guide here:

Step 1:

A - Run "Resource Hacker" and open the file "%windir%\Explorer.exe".
B - You see a Tree of all Resources in this file, expand the "String Table"
C - Find the "start" and replace it with your own text. then press the [Compile Script] button.
D - Save "Explorer.exe" as "MyStart.exe" DONT save it as Explorer.exe, do "save as.." and give it a new name.
E - Quit "Resource Hacker".

Step 2:

A - Click on the [Start] button and choose the "Run..." item from the start menu. (Or use the shortcut key WinKey+R)
B - Type "RegEdit" in the Run "Dialog Box". And then press the [Ok] buton to run the "Registry Editor" program.
C - Go to: "HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon" and find the "Shell" property.
D - Replace value of the "Shell" property to "MyStart.exe".
E - Quit "Registry Editor".
F - Restart your system.

Note about Registry Editor:
if you did not find the key "HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon", you can search the Registry for the "Explorer.exe", to do this use the Edit Menu | Find Next (Ctrl+F).

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

OK,let's say someone password protected the BIOS of your or any other computer.
In most cases,you will only be blocked from accessing the BIOS settings (means no booting from CD),
but in the worst case,you won't be able to do anything on the computer.
The question is - how to remove the password ?
Here you go:

When you try to enter the pass-protected BIOS settings of a motherboard,most likely this will appear:

So you can't really change anything without knowing the password.I will describe 2 ways of password-removal in this tutorial,but there are additional 2-3 ways of doing it...the second way is the best.

1. Try backdoor password

Almost all motherboard manufacturers place so called "backdoor" passwords in the BIOS.
An ASUS A7V8X-X motherboar was used for this test.It's a quiet popular motherboard here.
I can't guarantee these passwords will work,but you can try it if you want.Each manufacturer has different passwords,here's a list you can try:

Award BIOS:

Condo
AWARD_SW
J332
589589
AWARD?SW
lkwpeter
aLLY
j262
j332

AMI BIOS:

A.M.I.
AMI_SW
AMI?SW

Phoenix BIOS:

phoenix

So enter these instead of the real BIOS password,and maybe it will work.Maybe not.
If it doesn't work,let's try the second method.

2. The best method

Removing the motherboard's battery and placing it back after 10-15 minutes is the best solution.
You can also try using the jumper that the motherboard has,and set it to clear the BIOS settings.

First turn off the computer of course,and get the power cable out of the 220V connector.Just to be sure.
Than open the side of your computer case and find the battery on the motherboard.
It looks like this,on 99% of motherboards:

Now get a small stick,or if you have small fingers,you can do it using them.
So get the stick/fingers and push the little clip on the battery-holder back,so the battery will pop-out.

Now,when the battery is out,leave it on a safe place where it can't get hurt.
Put it back after 10-15 minutes on the motherboard.
Just place it on it's place,and push it down slowly with your finger.Don't press it strongly.

When the battery is fitted in correctly,turn on the computer.
If you did everything fine,the BIOS password will be no longer there.
But all the BIOS settings will be set to default,so you'll need to set them again (if you want).

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?

Internet Slang Phrases people asking whats dthe meaning of this and that...
Here Internet Slang Phrases

0-9


1337 (written in ASCII) - From the word Leet, derived from the word elite
2 - too, or to
4 - For

A


AFAICR/S/T - As far as I can recall / remember / see / tel
AFAIK - As far as I know
AFK - Away from keyboard
ANFSCD - And Now For Something Completely Different. Used to change the subject of conversation.
ASAP - As soon as possible
ASL - Age / sex / location
ATEOTD - At The End of the Day
ATM - At the moment
AWOL - Absent Without (Official) Leave
AYBABTU (also abbreviated as AYB) - All your base are belong to us (from the video game Zero Wing)

B


B2B - Business to Business
B& and/or B7- Banned
BBIAB - Be back in a bit
BBL/S - Be back later / shortly / soon
BCNU - Be seein' you
Blog - Also known as web log or an online journal
BOFH - ~censored~ operator from hell
Bot - Any type of automated software in chatrooms and web-cataloging software
BRB - Be right back
BSOD - Blue Screen of Death
BTDT - Been there done that
BTW - By the way
Bump - Increment (For example, C's ++ operator.)or a backronym for "Bring Up My Post"

C


Crawl - To retrieve a web page along with the hyperlinks that reference it
Crapplet - A poorly written computer application
CU - See you (later)
CYA - See ya OR Cover Your Ass
Cyber (prefix) - A term used to connect the subsequent word loosely to the world of computers or the Internet or sex over a computer
Cyberspace - Virtual reality, the Internet, the World Wide Web, and other kinds of computer systems. Science fiction author William Gibson popularized the term in his novel Neuromancer. Gibson used the word to describe a virtual world of computer networks that his cyberpunk heroes 'jacked into'

D


DFTT - Don't feed the trolls
DGAF - Don't Give A ~censored~
DIAF - Die in a fire
DILLIGAF/D/S - Does it look like I give a flip / ~censored~ / damn / ~love~
DND - Do not disturb
DOA - Dead on arrival. Refers to hardware that is broken on delivery.

E


EOF - End Of File
EOM - End of Message
EOL - End of Life. Device or hardware that is at the end of its product life cycle.
EQ - EverQuest
ETA - Estimated time of arrival

F


FAQ - Frequently Asked Question(s)
FFS - For ~censored~'s sake
Flamer - Someone who makes inflammatory, abusive or directly offensive comments. Similar to, but not quite the same as an Internet troll[3]
FMCDH - From My Cold Dead Hands
FOAD - ~censored~ off and die
FOAF - Friend of a friend
FTL - For the loss
FTW - For the win
FU - ~censored~ you
FUBAR - ~censored~ up beyond all recognition / repair (from military slang; pronounced "foo-bar")
FUD - Fear, Uncertainty and Doubt (the purposeful spread of misinformation)
FWIW - For what it's worth
FYI - For your information

G


GBTW - Get back to work
GF - Great/good fight/girlfriend
GFU - Good for you
GFY - Go ~censored~ yourself
GG - Good game, used at or near the conclusion of a gaming match
GJ - Good job, often used in online gaming when a teammate performs an act benefitting his team, such as killing an opponent or enabling that kill
GMTA - Great minds think alike
Godwin's Law - Dictates that the longer a thread, the more likely someone will post a comparison involving Nazis or Hitler
Gratz - Congratulations
GTFO - Get the ~censored~ out
GTG or G2G - 'Got to go' or 'Good to go'
GR -Good Race
GR8 - Great

H


HAND - Have A Nice Day
Handle - Name used in online chat, (AKA nick(name), alias, screen/user name)
HF - Have fun
Haxor or H4x0r (1337) - Hacker
Hit - A request made to the web server, (noun) the results of an internet search, (verb) loading a Web page. Hits are not equivalent to visitors of a webpage.
Home page - The website's introduction page, starting point, and guide. The technical term is "index"
Hot list - A collection of publicly available URLs (World Wide Web site addresses), sometimes available as text files.
HTH - Hope this / that helps
H8 - Hate

I


IANAL - I am not a lawyer
IBTL - In before the lock
IDC - I don't care
IDK - I don't know
IIRC - If I recall / remember correctly
IIUC - If I understand correctly
IMO/IMHO/IMNSHO/IMAO - In my (humble / honest / not so humble / arrogant) opinion
Information superhighway - The Internet (AKA: I-way, infobahn)
IONO - I don't know
IOW - In other words
IRC - Internet Relay Chat
IRL - In real life
ITYM - I Think You Mean
IWSN - I want sex now
IYKWIM - If you know what I mean

J


Jaggy - Aliased computer graphics
JK or j/k - Just kidding, or joke
JFGI - Just ~censored~/Freaking Google It

K


k or kk - OK
KISS - Keep it simple stupid.
KS(ing) - Kill-Steal(ing)
KOS - Kill on sight
KTHX - OK, thanks
KTHXBAI or KTHXBYE - OK, thanks, goodbye, used either to cut short a conversation or to express displeasure with being cut short

L


L2P - Learn to play; an admonishment to MMORPG players who are incompetent and/or whine
L8R - Later, L8R also sometimes abbreviated as L8ER is commonly used in chat rooms and other text based communications as a way of saying good bye.
Lag - Slang term for slow Internet speeds or high Internet latency; Lag is sometimes due to a server problem, but more frequently due to the connection between client and server. A slow or intermittent connection may often be referred to as laggy
Lamer - A know-nothing, one who is lame.
Leet - Often spelled as l33t or 1337 in ASCII form. It originally meant elite
LFG - Looking for group
LFM - Looking for more
LM(F)AO - Laughing my (frigging) ass off
LMIRL - Let's meet in real life.
LMK - Let me know
LOL - Laughing out loud, laugh out loud
LTNS - Long time no see
Lurker - Someone who frequents a Usenet group without participating in discussions

M


MMORPG, MMO - Massive Multi-player Online Role Playing Game
MMOFPS - Massive Multi-player Online First Person Shooter
MOTD - Message of the day
MS - MapleStory, an MMORPG
MTFBWY - May The Force be with you
MUD - Multi-User Dungeon
MUSH - Multi-User Shared Hallucination
MYOB - Mind your own business
M8 - Mate

N


NE1 - "Anyone"
NFI - "No ~censored~ Idea"
Newbie, noob, or n00b - An inexperienced user of a system or game,or an annoying person.
NIFOC - Naked In Front Of Computer
NM - (Sometimes written N/M) Not much, Never mind or no message, used on message boards or in e-mails to indicate that everything is already said in the subject line.
NP - No problem
NSFW - Not safe for work. Warning about content that may get the viewer in trouble with his employer or co-workers.
NVM, NVMD, or nm - Nevermind, not much

O


O RLY - Oh really?
OIC - Oh, I see
OFN - Old ~censored~ news
OMG - Oh my god
OMFG - Oh my ~censored~ god
OMW - On my way or Oh my word
OP - Original poster / Operator / Outpost
OS - Operating system
OT - Off topic
OTOH - On the other hand
OTP - On the phone or One true pairing

P


P2P - Peer to peer, or pay to play
PAW - Parents are watching
PEBKAC/PEBCAK - Problem exists between keyboard and chair
Ping - From the popular network monitoring tool, used as a greeting similar to "Are you there?".
PITA - Pain in the arse / ass
PLMK - Please let me know
PMSL - Pissing myself laughing
POS - Piece of ~love~, or parent over shoulder.
POTS - Plain old telephone service
POV - Point of view
PPL - People
PTKFGS - Punch the Keys For God's Sake
pr0n - Intentional misspelling of porn
PW - Persistent World (gaming)
pwned - Intentional misspelling of owned

Q


QFT - Quoted for truth. Used on internet message boards to show agreement from a previous message


R


Rehi (or merely re) - Hello again
RL - Real Life[3]
RO(T)FL - Rolling on (the) floor laughing
RO(T)FLMAO - Rolling on (the) floor laughing my ass off
RO(T)FLOL - Rolling on (the) floor laughing out loud
RSN - Real soon now (used sarcastically)
RTFB - Read the ~censored~ binary (or book)
RTFS - Read the ~censored~ source
RTFM/RTM - Read the (~censored~) manual

S


SCNR - Sorry, could not resist
sk8/sk8r - skate/skater
Smiley - Another name for emoticons
SMH - Shaking my head
SNAFU - Situation normal: all (~censored~/[3]fouled) up
Snail mail - Normal paper mail service
SOHF - Sense of humor failure
Spider - The program behind a search engine
STFU - Shut the ~censored~ up
STFW - Search the ~censored~ web

T


TANSTAAFL - There ain't no such thing as a free lunch
TBF - Time between failures
TBH - To be honest
TG - That's great
TGIF - Thank god it's Friday
TH(N)X, TNX or TX - Thanks
TIA - Thanks in advance
TINC - There Is No Cabal, a term discouraging conspiracy theories
TMI - Too much information
TOS - Terms of service
TTBOMK - To the best of my knowledge
TTFN - Ta ta for now
TTT - To the top, used in forums to bump a thread
TTYL - Talk to you later (also spelled TTUL, T2UL or T2YL)
TTYTT - To Tell You The Truth
Tweedler - One who has deep love for all computer related technology and gadgets
TWIMC - To Whom It May Concern
TY - Thank you
TYT - Take your time
TYVM - Thank you very much

U


U - You
UTFSE - Use the ~censored~ search engine



W


w00t, w00T or WOOT - First two express exuberance, the latter is a backronym for the term "We Own the Other Team".
W/ or W/O - With or without
WB - Welcome back
W/E - Whatever
WRT - With respect / regard to
WTB - Want to buy
WTF - What the ~censored~
WTG - Way to go
WTH - What the hell
WTS - Want to sell
WTT - Want to trade
WUG - What you got?
WoW - World of Warcraft (game)
WUBU2 - What (have) you been up to?
WUU2 - What (are) you up to?
WYSIWYG - What you see is what you get
W8 - Wait



Y

YARLY - Yeah Really
YHBT - You have been trolled
YKW - You know what?
YMMV - Your mileage may vary.
YTMND - You're The Man Now, Dog
YW - You're welcome.
YOYO- You're On Your Own.


Z

ZOMG - An intentional misspelling of the acronym shorthand for "Oh My God/Gawd" and pronounced "Zoh My God/Gawd" This version is mainly used in jest or to ridicule people who use abbreviations like OMG and OMFG

Labels: How To Do ?

Do you have any useless CDs or DVDs lying around? This video show you how to use a Banana to clean them up and get them back to working condition!
Text from metacafe.com

Labels: Funny Tutorials, How To Do ?

There are a number of ways to contact President Vladimir Putin:

You can send a message to the President through this website.

If your message is personal, sensitive or you would like to receive a reply, you should write to the President at this address:

send a message to the President

If your message is personal, sensitive or you would like to receive a reply, you should write to the President at this address:

4, Staraya Square, Moscow, 103132

You can send a letter to the Presidential Executive Office using the same address.

All letters, appeals, questions, requests are sent to a special directorate in the Presidential Executive Office – Presidential Directorate for Communication and Public Feedback. This directorate examines, processes and analyses all the correspondence. Each week the President receives a report on the issues raised.

Labels: How To Do ?

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 3

1 Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)
reduces network complexity *
increases unplanned downtime
limits unplanned downtime *
increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance
limits events that may impact network performance *

2 A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
an incorrect host table entry *
an incorrect ARP table entry
an incorrect routing table entry
an incorrect protocol configured
an incorrect subnet mask

3 The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown *
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224 *
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000 *
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

4 Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)
Router# show ram
Router# show flash *
Router# show hosts
Router# show history
Router# show version *
Router# show startup-config *

5 Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)
circuit number
host IP address *
telnet password *
number of hops between routers
purpose and location of the interface

6 Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)
delete flash
erase startup-config *
erase running-config *
restart
reload
delete NVRAM

7 Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?
IP table
SAP table
ARP table
MAC table
HOST table *
RARP table

8 Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Router# copy run tftp
Router# copy tftp run
Router# copy running-config tftp *
Router# copy tftp running-config *
Router(config)# copy running-config tftp
Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

9 Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)
They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance. *
They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users. *
They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.
They should be seen only by system administrators.
They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

10 What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?
permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ
assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1
renames the router as HQ
defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1
configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1 *

11 What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)
DTE *
DCE
shutdown *
no IP address *
clock rate 56000
encapsulation ARPA

12 What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?
portsmouth#
portsmouth(config)# *
invalid input detected
router(config-host)#
hostname = portsmouth
portsmouth#
? command not recognized
router(config)#

13 A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
Router(config)#enable cisco secret
Router(config)#enable cisco
Router(config)#service password-encryption *
Router(config)#enable secret cisco *
Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco
Router(config)#service encryption-password

14 Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?
Router(config-line)#config telnet
Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5
Router(config-line)# password cisco


Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config)# password cisco


Router(config)# line vty 0 4*
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login


Router(config-line)# config telnet
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

15 An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)
Enter the command no shutdown. *
A password must be set on the interface.
The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask. *
The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

16 What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
up, line protocol down
down, line protocol down *
adminstratively down, line protocol down
up, line protocol up

17 Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)
Router(privileged)#
Router(config)# *
Router(command)#
Router(config-router)# *
Router(config-if)# *
Router(exec)#

18 Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.
1)Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN
2)Router# configure terminal*
Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN
3)Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN
4)Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

19 Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)
all network hosts
network server *
floppy disk *
TFTP server *
server that is not on the network

20 Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown *

21 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface *
console interface *
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode *
router configuration mode

22 What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly connected?
a clock rate on the DTE interface
a no clock rate command on the DTE interface
no configuration is required
a clock rate on the DCE interface *

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 2

1 What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method *
the tftp software version installed
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
the configuration register settings *
the location used for loading the IOS *


2 What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?
2400
4800
9600 *
14200
38400

3 Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both configured on a router?
enable password
enable secret *
Neither. They are both enabled.
Neither. They cancel each other out.

4 The active IOS of the router is initialized from FLASH. In this scenario, what commands would be used to display the name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)
Router#show IOS
Router#show flash *
Router#show nvram
Router#show version *
Router#show startup-config
Router#show running-config

5 Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
Ctrl-A *
Ctrl-B
Esc-A
Esc-B
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-Z

6 What is the maximum number of commands allowed in the history buffer?
10
20
128
255
256 *

7 Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
recover from system failures *
create startup configuration files
recover from lost passwords *
configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
perform high level diagnostics

8 What is the default sequence for loading the IOS?
NVRAM, TFTP, FLASH
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, ROM, TFTP
FLASH, TFTP, ROM *
TFTP, FLASH, ROM

9 Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port *
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

10 When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
Press the Spacebar to view the next screen. *
Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
Press the Enter key to display the next line. *
Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

11 Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router *
telnet to the router through a serial port
use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

12 What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose three.)
the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
the hardware platform the image runs on *
the various software platforms the image can run on
special features and capabilities of the image *
the bandwidth supported by the IOS
where the image executes from and if it has been compressed *

13 Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
after issuing the command Router#setup *
during the initial configuration of a router *
after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router *
after deleting the running configuration

14 What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
all show commands allowed in privileged mode
all commands beginning with the letters sh *
an incomplete command error message
an invalid command error message

15 Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two levels? (Choose two.)
global
privileged *
local
user *
interface

16 Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface configuration mode?
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
Ctrl-Z *
Esc

17 Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration *
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

18 Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose three.)
User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation. *
Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes.
On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#. *
The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode. *

19 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet *
modem

20 What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE *
FLASH, TFTP, ROM

21 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size. *
Recall previously entered commands. *
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

Throughout time, there has been one fact that tends to repeat itself: a conflict of interest leads to a conflict of weapons. In this case, there's an international race for who can settle the New World first.

Welcome to Age of Empires III. Eight civilizations, one great continent, zero chance of sharing. When the dust settles and the corpses fertilize the ground, will it be your flag being raised? Or will it be draped over your grave?

Age of Empires III follows the tradition of its predecessors, combining fast action with strategic thinking at every step. In addition to the new card system, even the same civilization can be customized and tweaked to fit your play style. IGN has covered the grounds from Delaware to California, and we bring the strategies and tips to you with our patented accuracy!



Age Of Empire 3 - Game Guides

Labels: Game Tutorials

15 Top Windows XP Secrets


1. Useful key shortcuts available:

- Windows key + D - shows the desktop
- Windows key + M - minimizes all open windows
- Windows key + Shift + M - maximizes whole enchilada open windows
- Windows key + E - Runs Windows Explorer
- Windows key + R - shows the RUN dialog
- Windows key + F - shows Search window
- Windows key + Break - shows System Properties box
- Windows key + TAB - Go fini taskbar applications


- Windows key + PAUSE Display the System Properties dialog box
- Windows key + U Unlatched Lift Executive
- ALT + TAB - Cycle through opened applications
- Hold down CTRL while dragging an item to Copy it
- CTRL + ESC Exhibition the Inauguration menu
- ALT + ENTER View the properties for the selected item
- F4 key Display the Address bar list leadership My Computer or
- NUM LOCK + Asterisk ( * ) Expo all of the subfolders that are under the selected folder

2. Pair Windows to protect computer
You can melt Windows to protect the computer when leaving the station succulent by creating a scheme with the corridor rundll32. exeuser32. dll, LockWorkStation. The Windows key + L is also a shortcut to this feature.

3. Edit sysoc. inf to list all software
To show thoroughgoing software that can be removed from your computer ( including protected Windows services ), you can manually edit ( using notepad for model ) the sysoc. inf file located in Windows \ inf \. Just remove the word hide next to the software bring.
* Note * - use this at your own risk. Removing critical components of the system will make Windows instable.

4. Windows XP comes with IPv4 and IPv6
Windows XP comes both IPv4 and IPv6 support. To enable IPv6, you can originate the protocols needed with the command " ipv6 install " in the command - prompt. Then type ipv6 /? to see the options. The installation will not remove the IPv4 protocols so your stock configuration will still work.

5. Access Task Manager with shortcut
To access the Task Manager easier, you answerability make a shortcut that points to % windir % \ system32 \ taskmgr. exe.

6. Stop treating ZIP files like Folders
If you don't want your Windows XP to treat ZIP files like folders, you can disable this component by lofty regsvr32 / u zipfldr. dll at the command prompt or Run dialog. If you start missing it, you encumbrance enable solid by typing regsvr32 zipfldr. dll.

7. Run program as diffrent user
You obligation run a program as a different user. Moral click an application and select Run As command.

8. Switch users leaving applications opened
You can switch users leaving the applications opened too ( * NOTE * advantage this only when needed since live could lead to system instability ).
Snap to Task Manager - processes and end the process explorer. exe. This will end only your session and not all applications. Then go to Applications tab, click New task and type runas / user: domainname \ username explorer. exe. A password prompt will appear to login to the desired username. The user's session will start, with all your previously applications running.
I recommend to unlatched first a command - line prompt and type runas /? to see uncut the options available.

9. Rename multiple files in Windows at once
Rename multiple files in Windows at once. Select them all, right click and select Rename. Enter the desired name. They will mean renamed using what you specified, with a number in brackets to distinguish them.

10. Task kill feature in Windows
Windows has a task kill feature similar to Linux. Go to a command prompt and drop the power tasklist to see running processes hole up PID numbers. Then type tskill to end the specific task. This forces an instant closing of the chore.

11. Edit features with GPEDIT. MSC
You can edit many features by running gpedit. msc. You can add ledger on / observation off scripts here and many features.

12. Edit accounts weight the command prompt
You can edit accounts by gangling " control userpasswords2 " at the command prompt.

13. Use systeminfo. exe to see System Information
You can habit the systeminfo. exe command in the command prompt to see System Information, including all Windows updates besides hotfixes.

14. Disable system services for maximum performance
There are system services that you can disable to free unfolding the system's load. To access the interface that permits you to make changes to system's services, standing services. msc and the command prompt.
This is a list of services that are * usually * useless and can be safely disabled.
Alerter
Application Layer Gateway Service,
Application Management
Automatic Updates
Background Intelligent Transfer
Clipbook
Distributed Fasten Tracking Client
Distributed Transaction Coordinater
Error Reporting Service
Fast User Switching Compatibility
IMAPI CD - Relucent
Indexing Benefit
IPSEC Services
Messenger
Net Logon
Net Meeting
Remote Desktop Sharing
Network DDE
Network DDE DSDM
Portable Media Serial Numeral
Remote Desktop Help Session Executive
Remote Registry
Secondary Logon
Smartcard
SSDP Discovery Service
Uninterruptible Power Vouchsafe
Universal Plug and Play Device Host
Upload Manager
Webclient
Wireless Zero Framework
WMI Performance Adaptor

* NOTE *: Make sure you don't need them since some applications you're using could depend on them. If you make any application to fail by disabling any of the services, go back and enable unaffected again.

15. Keep up Windows XP by using the XP installation CD
If your system failes to start due to an error related to missing HAL. DLL, invalid Boot. ini or any other critical system boot files you can repair this by using the XP installation Video. Simply boot from your XP Setup CD and allow for the Recovery Console. Then run " attrib - H - R - S " on the C: \ Boot. ini file and delete it. Run " Bootcfg / Rebuild " and then Fixboot.

Source

Labels: Computer Tutorials, Tricks/Tips, Windows XP Tips/Tricks

CCNA (V.31) Semester-2- Question - Answers- Paper 1

1 The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
debugging *
password recovery *
routing data between networks
troubleshooting *
connecting one router to another

2 ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)


straight-through cable
terminal emulation software *
rollover cable *
RJ-45 to DB-9 connector *
V.35 cable

3 Which ports on Cisco routers can be used for initial configuration? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
console *
auxiliary *
serial
AUI
BRI

4 Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
They are non-network connections. *
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
They are used for initial router configuration. *
They are asynchronous serial ports. *
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

5 Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs
routers *
communication servers *
transceivers
modems *
multi-port repeaters

6 Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely
does not depend on network services *
displays startup and error messages by default *
does not require special components

7 Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
physical layer *
application layer
transport layer
data link layer *
session layer

8 What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables
bridging tables
routing tables *
switching tables

9 A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory
read only memory
flash memory
non-volatile random access memory *

10 Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default
can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules*
stores Cisco IOS software images *
stores routing table information by default
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted

11 During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted
crossover
rollover *
straight

12 Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files
connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit *
can be on the motherboard or a separate module *
hold the IOS image
connect the router to LANs and WANs *

13 Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file
stores routing table *
holds fast switching cache *
retains contents when power is removed
stores running configuration file *

14 Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory
read only memory
non-volatile random access memory *
flash memory

15 Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch
crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch
straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN *
a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch *

16 What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration
configuration files *
flash memory
internal components

17 Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
CPU *
hard drive
input/output interfaces *
keyboard
monitor
system bus *

18 Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second
data bits *
parity *
stop bits *
flow control

19 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed *
stores the startup configuration file *
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table

20 Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
troubleshooting problems *
monitoring the system *
capturing LAN data packets
configuring the router *
routing data packets

21 An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
switching *
static addressing
IETF standardization
dynamic or static routing *
consistent end-to-end addressing *

22 Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location
connects multiple networks in a single building
provides connectivity on a LAN
provides connectivity over a large geographic area *

Labels: MCSE / CCNA, Question Answers

SAP Model Test Paper - 2

1) What is runtime analysis? Have you used this?
It's checks program execution time in microseconds. When you go to se30.if you give desired program name in performance file. It will take you to below screen. You can get how much past is your program.

2) What is meant by performance analysis? Have done

3) How to transfer the objects? Have you transferred any objects?


4) How did you test the developed objects?
I was testing a developed object. There are two types of testing
- Negative testing
- Positive testing
In negative testing we will give negative data in input and we check any errors occurs.
In positive testing we will give positive data in input for checking errors.

5) How did you handle errors in Call Transaction?
We can create a internal table like 'bsgmcgcoll'. All the messages will go to internal table. We can get errors in this internal table.

Below messages are go to internal table. when you run the call transaction.
- Message type
- Message id
- Message Number
- Variable1
- Variable2
- Variable3

6) Among the Call Transaction and Session Method, which is faster?
Call transaction is faster then session method. But usually we use session method in real time...because we can transfer large amount of data from internal table to database and if any errors in a session. Process will not complete until session get correct.

7) What are the difference between Interactive and Drill Down Reports?
ABAP/4 provides some interactive events on lists such as AT LINE-SELECTION (double click) or AT USER-COMMAND (pressing a button). You can use these events to move through layers of information about individual items in a list.

Drill down report is nothing but interactive report...drilldown means above paragraph only.

8) How to pass the variables to forms?

9) What is the table, which contain the details of all the name of the programs and forms?
Table contains vertical and horizontal lines. We can store the data in table as blocks. We can scroll depends upon your wish. And these all are stored in database (data dictionary).

Which contain the details of all the name of the programs and forms? (I don't know).

10) How did you test the form u developed? How did you taken print?

11) What are Standard Texts?

12) What is the difference between Clustered Tables and Pooled Tables?
A pooled table is used to combine several logical tables in the ABAP/4 dictionary. Pooled tables are logical tables that must be assigned to a table pool when they are defined.

Cluster table are logical tables that must be assigned to a table cluster when they are defined.

Cluster table can be used to store control data they can also used to store temporary data or text such as documentation.

13) What is pf-status?
Pf status is used in interactive report for enhancing the functionality. If we go to se41, we can get menus, items and different function keys, which we are using for secondary list in interactive report.

14) Among "Move" and "Move Corresponding", which is efficient one?
I guess, 'move corresponding' is very efficient then 'move' statement. Because usually we use this stamtent for internal table fields only...so if we give move corresponding. Those fields only moving to other place (what ever you want).

15) What are the output type and Tcodes?

16) Where we use Chain and End chain?

17) Do you use select statement in loop end loop, how will be the performance? To improve the performance?

18) In select-options, how to get the default values as current month first date and last date by default?
Eg: 1/12/2007 and 31/12/2007

Labels: Question Answers

SAP Interview Questions - 3

# Select statement to read data into internal tables. Types of Select statements?
# hat’s an effective way of using an internal table record?
# Types of internal tables?
# Field groups?
# Control levels in internal tables?
# How to eliminate duplicate entries in internal tables?
# Size of the internal tables?


# Field groups and internal tables?
# Handling of internal tables?
# What is an Open Item in SAP? How will you find an Open Item in SAP?
# What are the modules in FI that you have worked on?
# In the MM module for finding out the standard cost what is the view one has to look at?
# What is the work you have done in the MM module and what programs did you use for creating views in MM?
# Condition technique?
# In the function module for reading text from the S.O header what needs to be specified?
# How do you get the Sales Order (S.O) No. from the Delivery Order?
# While picking can the pick list be updated automatically?
# In delivery processing which step comes first picking, packing,posting goods issue ?
# What happens when you post goods issue after delivery? How does the inventory get reduced after the delivery?
# Do you need and enquiry or quotation before we start the SD process?
# Explain what are the steps in the SD process at least up to the invoicing stage?
# What is an Unpack command?
# What is the reserve command?
# How many interactive reports did you write?
# What is the most complex interactive report that was written by You?
# Double click function on the lists, identifying the line selected by the user on the list.
# At-Line selection, At user-command etc..,?
# Exit and Stop. What is the difference?
# Check and Continue. What is the difference?

Labels: Question Answers

SAP Interview Questions - 2

# In selection screen I have three fields, plant mat no and material group. If I input plant how do I get the mat no and material group based on plant dynamically?
# On which even we can validate the input fields in module progams?
# What are client dependant objects in abap/sap?
# How data is stored in cluster table?

# What is the difference between Upload and WS_Upload ?
# Open datasets, Read datasets ( Reading and writing data to files)?
# Have you set up a back ground job ? How to create a background job without a variant ?
# Have you processed BDCs ?
# How do you send files to the legacy systems from SAP and vice versa? How does one know that the legacy files have come on to the SAP server you are working on?
# What kind of BDC programs are written ?
# Update types in Call transaction method. What is the difference?
# Call transaction method, how to capture the errors ?
# Data conversion experience?
# Experience with ABAP and Unix files?
# From Excel to ABAP - Is batch mode possible ?
# How to read files and process BDCs automatically?
# Difference between /N and /BEND?
# SM35 transaction . How to automate BDC ?
# BDC vs Direct Loads( have you used direct loads on SAP tables )?
# Recording Function?
# What are logical databases?
# What is Group by in Select statement?
# Catch Command?
# Explain Commit and Roll back?
# Difference between Insert, Update and Modify?
# What happens Update command is used without where clause ?

Labels: Question Answers

SAP Interview Questions - 1

# What is the command in subscript?
# In ver 3.0b how is the print program to layout set?
# What’s an effective way of using an internal table record? What are the types of internal
tables?
# In production what is the user exit?
# What type of user exits have you written?

# Have you worked with field groups? Have you used Import/Export statements?
# In the ‘select’ statement what is group by?
# Have you used performance tuning? What major steps will you use for these?
# On ABAP: Did you set up a workflow? Are you familiar with all steps for setting up a
workflow?
# Have you created Maintenance dialog or Table Maintenance?
# How to create client independent tables
# Difference between client dependent and client independent tables?
# Have you created database tables?
# Difference between Search Helps and Match Codes?
# Elementary search helps, Collective search help.?
# What does an EXEC SQL stmt do in ABAP? What is the disadvantage of using it?
# What is open sql vs native sql?
# What is a collect statement? How is it different from append?
# If an entry with the same key already exists, the COLLECT statement does not append a new
line, but adds the contents of the numeric fields in the work area to the contents of the
numeric fields in the existing entry.?
# How can I copy a standard table to make my own z_table.?
# Which transaction code can I used to analyze the performance of ABAP program.?
# How do we debug sapscript?
# Can we create field without data element and how?
# When top of the page event is triggered?
# How do you get output from IDOC?

Labels: Question Answers

SAP interview question and answers

1. Can you create a table with fields not referring to data elements?
YES. eg: - ITAB LIKE SPFLI. here we are referening to a data object ( SPFLI ) not data instigation.
What are the different types of data dictionary objects? tables, structures, views, domains, data elements, lock objects, Match code objects.


2. What should be the approach thanks to writing a BDC program?
STEP 1: CONVERTING THE LEGACY SYSTEM DATA TO A FLAT FILE to internal table CALLED " CONVERSION ".
STEP 2: TRANSFERING THE FLAT FILE INTO SAP SYSTEM CALLED " SAP DATA TRANSFER ".
STEP 3: DEPENDING UPON THE BDC TYPE
i ) call transaction ( Write the program explicity )
ii ) create sessions ( sessions are created and processed. if success data commit transfer ).

3. What are the problems in processing batch input sessions and How is batch input measure different from processing online?
PROBLEMS:
i ) If the user forgets to opt for keep session consequently the introduction will be automatically removed from the session queue ( log remains ). However if session is processed we may omit it manually.
ii ) if session processing fails data will not be transferred to SAP database table.

4. What does an extract statement do in the ABAP program?
Once you have declared the possible record types considering field groups and defined their structure, you can fill the extract dataset using the following statements: EXTRACT. When the first Parrot statement occurs in a program, the system creates the recite dataset and adds the first extract record to it. In each subsequent EXTRACT statement, the new extract record is added to the dataset EXTRACT HEADER. When you extract the data, the record is filled with the current values of the corresponding fields. As soon as the system has refined the first EXTRACT statement for a field group, the structure of the corresponding extract inscribe in the extract dataset is fixed. You can no longer insert new fields into the field groups and HEADER. If you try to modify one of the field groups afterwards again use it in another EXTRACT statement, a runtime error occurs. By processing EXTRACT statements several times using different employment groups, you fill the extract dataset with records of different length and structure. Since you can act on pursuit groups dynamically up to their first usage leverage an EXTRACT statement, extract datasets provide the advantage that you need not determine the structure at the beginning of the program.

5. Can a transparent table exist in data dictionary but not in the data base physically?
NO. TRANSPARENT TABLE DO EXIST WITH THE SAME STRUCTURE BOTH IN THE DICTIONARY AS WELL AS IN THE DATABASE, EXACTLY WITH THE SAME DATA AND FIELDS.

6. What is the measure by step process to create a table in data dictionary?
step 1: creating domains ( data cast, field length, range ).
step 2: creating data elements ( properties and ethos for a table field ).
step 3: creating tables ( SE11 ).

7. What is the typical appearance of an ABAP / 4 program?
HEADER, BODY, FOOTER.

8. A situation: An ABAP program creates a batch input session. We need to submit the program and the batch session in back ground. How to pull off it?

go to SM36 and create background job by giving job name, job class and job steps ( JOB SCHEDULING )

9. What are the domains and data elements?
DOMAINS: FORMAL DEFINITION OF THE DATA TYPES. THEY SET ATTRIBUTES SUCH AS DATA Singularity, LENGTH, RANGE. DATA ELEMENT: A FIELD Impact R / 3 SYSTEM IS A DATA ELEMENT.

10. What is the alternative to bunch input session?
Call worry.

12. What is a batch input session?
BATCH INPUT SESSION is an intermediate step between internal table and database table. Data along with the action is stored in session ie data for screen fields, to which smuggle it is passed, program name behind it, also how next salt away is processed.

13. What is the advantage of structures? How do you use them in the ABAP programs?
Adv: - GLOBAL EXISTANCE ( these could be used by any other wrinkle lost creating it again ).

14. How many types of tables exists and what are they in data dictionary?
4 types of tables
i) Transparent tables - Exists with the same structure both in dictionary as well for in database exactly with the same data and fields. Both Opensql and Nativesql can be used.
ii ) Pool tables &
iii) Cluster tables - These are logical tables that are arranged being records of transparent tables. sole cannot use native sql on these tables ( only open sql ). They are not managable directly using database system instruments.
iv) At ease tables -.?

Labels: Question Answers

Try out the following key combinations for Acrobat 6.0 & 7.0:


ctrl+ shift + b ---> To hear the whole document


ctrl + shift + v ---> To hear only the page


ctrl + shift + c ---> To resume


ctrl + shift + e ---> To stop



Adobe Acrobat 8

Read a PDF with Read Out Loud

The Read Out Loud feature reads aloud the text in a PDF, including the text in comments and alternative text descriptions for images and fillable fields. In tagged PDFs, content is read in the order in which it appears in the document’s logical structure tree. In untagged documents, the reading order is inferred, unless a reading order has been specified in the Reading preferences.

Read Out Loud uses the available voices installed on your system. If you have SAPI 4 or SAPI 5 voices installed from text-to-speech or language applications, you can choose them to read your PDFs.

Note: Read Out Loud isn’t a screen reader, and some operating systems may not support it.
Activate or deactivate Read Out Loud
You must activate Read Out Loud before you can use it. You can deactivate Read Out Loud to free system resources and improve performance of other operations.

Do one of the following:
Choose View > Read Out Loud > Activate Read Out Loud or press Shift+Ctrl+Y (Windows) or Shift+Command+Y (Mac OS).

Choose View > Read Out Loud > Deactivate Read Out Loud or press Shift+Ctrl+Y (Windows) or Shift+Command+Y (Mac OS).

Read a PDF with Read Out Loud
Navigate to the page that you want to read.
Do one of the following:
Choose View > Read Out Loud > Read This Page Only or press Shift+Ctrl+V (Windows) or Shift+Command+V (Mac OS).

Choose View > Read Out Loud > Read To End Of Document or press Shift+Ctrl+B (Windows) or Shift+Command+B (Mac OS).

Read PDF form fields out loud
In the Reading panel of the Preferences dialog box, select Read Form Fields in the Read Out Loud Options section.
In the PDF form, press Tab to select the first form field.
Make entries and selections as needed, and then press Tab to move to the next field, repeating this step until the form is completed. Acrobat reads the state of selected check boxes and radio buttons.
Interrupt reading out loud
Do one of the following:
Choose View > Read Out Loud > Pause or press Shift+Ctrl+C (Windows) or Shift+Command+C (Mac OS).

Choose View > Read Out Loud > Stop or press Shift+Ctrl+E (Windows) or Shift+Command+E (Mac OS).

Hope This Work For you..

1. Go to the installation folder of acrobat reader

(C:\program files\adobe\acrobat\reader\.. )

2. Move all the files and folders from the "plugins" directory to the "Optional" directory. (I repeat.. cut and paste the files NOT copy & paste).

Note:-
Also make sure that acrobat reader is not open else it will lock the files and not allow you to move the files.

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?

These Nokia codes will work on most Nokia Mobile Phones

Code Description :

(1) *3370# Activate Enhanced Full Rate Codec (EFR) - Your phone uses the best sound quality but talk time is reduced my approx. 5%

(2) #3370# Deactivate Enhanced Full Rate Codec (EFR) OR *3370#



(3) *#4720# Activate Half Rate Codec - Your phone uses a lower quality sound but you should gain approx 30%

more Talk Time.

(4) *#4720# Deactivate Half Rate Codec.

(5) *#0000# Displays your phones software version, 1st Line : Software Version, 2nd Line : Software Release

Date, 3rd Line : Compression Type.

(6) *#9999# Phones software version if *#0000# does not work.

(7) *#06# For checking the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI Number).

(8) #pw+1234567890+1# Provider Lock Status. (use the "*" button to obtain the "p,w"
and "+" symbols).

(9) #pw+1234567890+2# Network Lock Status. (use the "*" button to obtain the "p,w"
and "+" symbols).

(10) #pw+1234567890+3# Country Lock Status. (use the "*" button to obtain the "p,w"
and "+" symbols).

(11) #pw+1234567890+4# SIM Card Lock Status. (use the "*" button to obtain the "p,w" Go to Top
and "+" symbols).

(12) *#147# (vodafone) this lets you know who called you last.

(13) *#1471# Last call (Only vodofone).

(14) *#21# Allows you to check the number that "All Calls" are diverted to

(15) *#2640# Displays security code in use.

(16) *#30# Lets you see the private number.

(17) *#43# Allows you to check the "Call Waiting" status of your phone.

(18) *#61# Allows you to check the number that "On No Reply" calls are diverted to.

(19) *#62# Allows you to check the number that "Divert If Unreachable (no service)" calls
are diverted to.

(20) *#67# Allows you to check the number that "On Busy Calls" are diverted to.

(21) *#67705646# Removes operator logo on 3310 & 3330.

(22) *#73# Reset phone timers and game scores.

(23) *#746025625# Displays the SIM Clock status, if your phone supports this power saving feature "SIM Clock Stop Allowed", it means you will get the best standby time possible.

(24) *#7760# Manufactures code.

(25) *#7780# Restore factory settings.

(26) *#8110# Software version for the nokia 8110.

Go to Top

(27) *#92702689# Displays - 1.Serial Number, 2.Date Made, 3.Purchase Date, 4.Date of last repair (0000 for no repairs), 5.Transfer User Data. To exit this mode you need to switch your phone off then on again. ( Favourite )

(28) *#94870345123456789# Deactivate the PWM-Mem.

(29) **21*number# Turn on "All Calls" diverting to the phone number entered.

(30) **61*number# Turn on "No Reply" diverting to the phone number entered.

(31) **67*number# Turn on "On Busy" diverting to the phone number entered.

(32) 12345 This is the default security code.

Labels: Mobiles Tricks

How To Lock Folder without any Software

Many people have been looking for an alternative way to lock Folders without the use of any alternative software. So, here you go.

Open Notepad and copy the below code and save as locker.bat. Please don't forget to change your password in the code it's shown the place where to type your password.
Now double click on locker .bat
First time start, it will create folder with Locker automatically for u. After creation of the Locker folder, place the contents u want to lock inside the Locker Folder and run locker.bat again.



Code:-
___________________________________________________________


cls
@ECHO OFF
title Folder Locker
if EXIST "Control Panel.{21EC2020-3AEA-1069-A2DD-08002B30309D}" goto UNLOCK
if NOT EXIST Locker goto MDLOCKER
:CONFIRM
echo Are you sure u want to Lock the folder(Y/N)
set/p "cho=>"
if %cho%==Y goto LOCK
if %cho%==y goto LOCK
if %cho%==n goto END
if %cho%==N goto END
echo Invalid choice.
goto CONFIRM
:LOCK
ren Locker "Control Panel.{21EC2020-3AEA-1069-A2DD-08002B30309D}"
attrib +h +s "Control Panel.{21EC2020-3AEA-1069-A2DD-08002B30309D}"
echo Folder locked
goto End
:UNLOCK
echo Enter password to Unlock folder
set/p "pass=>"
if NOT %pass%== type your password here goto FAIL
attrib -h -s "Control Panel.{21EC2020-3AEA-1069-A2DD-08002B30309D}"
ren "Control Panel.{21EC2020-3AEA-1069-A2DD-08002B30309D}" Locker
echo Folder Unlocked successfully
goto End
:FAIL
echo Invalid password
goto end
:MDLOCKER
md Locker
echo Locker created successfully
goto End
:End

___________________________________________________________

Labels: Computer Tutorials, How To Do ?

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13

1
Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
*transport
network

2
Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168 255.255.255.240. What is the network IP address of this interface?

10.0.0.0
10.172.0.0
10.172.192.0
*10.172.192.160
10.172.192.168
10.172.192.175



3
Examine the graphic with current configurations. The New York Offices of ABC Company recently upgraded the computers in the administrative office. Shortly after the upgrade, Host A in the clerical office failed and was replaced with one of the retired administrative office computers. However, the computer can not access the company network in the new location. What is the likely cause of this network access issue for Host A?

MAC address incorrectly entered
*default gateway incorrectly entered
subnet mask incorrectly entered
IP address incorrectly entered



4
Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
*an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub *

5
What is attenuation?

opposition to the flow of current
measurement of electrical signals relative to time
*degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium

6
Two peer hosts are running applications that exchange data using UDP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. What is true concerning the retransmission of the datagram?

*Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source host.
Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the destination host.
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application layer protocol.
Datagram retransmission involves only the data with sequence numbers equal to or higher than the sequence number of the current datagram.

7
What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?

*It verifies the operation of the TCP/IP protocol stack on a host and is called an internal loopback test.
It verifies connection to the remote host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
It verifies whether the router that connects the local network to other networks can be reached.
It verifies the route packets take between the local host and the host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

8
Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?

fast forward
fragment-free
latency forwarding
*store-and-forward

9
Which of the following application layer protocols use UDP segments? (Choose two.)

*DNS
FTP
Telnet
*TFTP
SMTP

10
Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?

100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
*100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable

11
When is a crossover cable used in a network?
when connecting a host to the router console port
when connecting a host to a switch
*when connecting a host to a host
when connecting a switch to a router

12
Refer to the graphic. What must be configured on Host A to allow it communicate with the e-mail server? (Choose three.)

IP address *
subnet mask *
default gateway *
router name
switch name
NetBIOS name address

13
Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?

Cable A
Cable B
*Cable C
Cable D

14
Which type of address is 192.168.17.134/29?

*host address
network address
broadcast address
multicast address

15
How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

three
four
five
*six
seven
eight

16
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
*when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

17
How does network cable length affect attenuation?

Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest distance.
Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
*Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation.

18
Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

It is a media access method used in LANs. *
It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available. *
A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal access. Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
*Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

19
Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)

*closed loop
bit-generating device
insulating material
*source of voltage
*load
switch

20
If Host A pings Host B through a newly installed switch with no entries in the MAC address table, which stations will receive the ping packet?

B only
A and B
B and switch
A, B, and switch
B, C, D, and switch *
A, B, C, D, and switch


21
Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?

only PC
only router
PC and router
PC, hub, and router
*PC, printer, and router

22
What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?

*console connection
Ethernet connection
ISDN connection
leased line connection

23
Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010011?

203
204
*211
212
24
Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port and a PC COM port?

straight-through cable
crossover cable
*rollover cable
DB-9 cable
coaxial cable

25
Determine the number of useable networks and hosts for the IP address 192.168.50.0/27

4 networks / 62 hosts
6 networks / 64 hosts
32 networks / 8 hosts
*6 networks / 30 hosts
8 networks / 32 hosts
2 networks / 8 hosts

26
A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The administrator discovered that the IOS and configuration files need to be updated to meet the LAN specifications. Which application layer protocol is used to transfer the new configuration files into the router memory?

*SNMP
SMTP
HTTP
TFTP

27
Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?

It enables a network to span across multiple physical segments.
*It enables a switch to eliminate switching loops.
It enables a switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode.
It enables a switch to perform as a router.

28
Which of the following subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)

255.0.0.0
*255.255.0.0
255.192.255.0
255.224.0.0
*255.255.252.0
255.255.255.128

29
How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?

data, segments, frames, packets, bits
data, packets, segments, frames, bits
*data, segments, packets, frames, bits
data, packets, frames, segments, bits

30
Which of the following describes latency?

the noise generated from outside a cable
the degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
the time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
*the delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination

31
Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 111?

*01101111
01111101
11110111
11101101

32
Which LAN switching mode begins switching after reading only the first 64 bytes of the frame?

fast forward
*fragment-free
latency forwarding
store-and-forward

33
When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

1 and 2; 4 and 5
1 and 2; 3 and 6 *
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8

34
Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to view the current IP configuration of the system? (Choose two.)

configip
ifconfig
*ipconfig
*winipcfg
winipconfig

35
Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?

host address
network address
*broadcast address
multicast address

36
Which of the following networking devices increase the number of collision domains? (Choose three.)

*switch
hub
*router
repeater
*bridge

37
What information can be determined from the MAC addresses of PC1, PC2, and PC3, as shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

PC1 and PC2 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same OUI identifier.
PC2 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have different OUI identifiers.
*PC1 and PC2 NICs are from the same vendor.
PC1 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same vendor-assigned address.
*PC2 and PC3 NICs are from different vendors.
PC2 and PC3 NICs are from the same vendor.

38
Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

*DSL
Ethernet
Wireless Ethernet
*T1-Carrier
Token Ring
39
which one of the router connectors shown in the graphic would be used for a LAN connection?

Connector A
Connector B
*Connector C
Connector D

40
How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?

*Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.
Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.
Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.
Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.

41
Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)

connection-oriented protocol
connectionless protocol*
reliable protocol
unreliable protocol *
routed protocol *
routing protocol

42
Which of the following describe the token-passing logical topology? (Choose two.)

*FDDI is an example of a token-passing network.
Token-passing logical topologies must also be physical ring topologies.
One of the disadvantages of the token-passing logical topology is the high collision rate.
Computers transmit data after "listening" to the wire to detect other traffic.
*Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.


43
What is the maximum length of a media segment used for 100BASE-TX?

*100 meters
185 meters
400 meters
500 meters

44
which of the following networking devices divide a network into separate collision domains? (Choose two.)

repeater
*bridge
*switch
AUI
hub

45
Which of the following are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)

*Each wire is covered by insulating material.
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
*It is a four-pair wire medium.*
It is difficult to terminate the cable.
*It relies on the cancellation effect produced by the twisted wire pairs.
It is more expensive than any other type of LAN cabling.

46
Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
*subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47
Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?

It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
*It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.

48
Which two statements describe the TFTP protocol? (Choose two.)

uses authenticated file transfer procedure
provides connection-oriented service
*provides connectionless service
provides more features that FTP
*lacks most of the features of FTP

49
Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

FTP
*UDP
SMTP
TFTP
*TCP



50
Which type of UTP network cable connects two Cisco switches?

straight-through
*crossover
rollover
patch

51
How will the MAIN router dynamically learn a route to the 10.16.10.48/28 subnetwork in the diagram?

with a routed protocol
with a routing protocol
*with a static route
with a directly connected route

52
Which of the following describes the RIP version 1 routing protocol?

Cisco proprietary hybrid protocol
*distance vector protocol that uses hop count as the only metric *
link state protocol supporting multiple routed protocols
distance vector protocol that uses delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability metrics

53
How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

*three
four
five
six
seven
eight


54
Which of the following are advantages of UTP cable? (Choose three.)

*less expensive than fiber optic
*flexible and easy to run in a building
distance between signal boosts is longer than it is for coaxial
*transmits data at a faster rate than any copper-based media

receives less RMF and EMI interference than other types

55
Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)

*-hub
*-repeater

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
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Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12


1 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C

2 Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

156
158
160
* 162
164
166



3 Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)

* file size
data format
network in use
type of medium
* bandwidth of the link

4 Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?

52.2 seconds
* 21.3 seconds
6.4 seconds
2 seconds
0.075 seconds
0.0375 seconds

5 What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)

path determination
handles representation, encoding and dialog control
* uses TCP and UDP protocols
packet switching
* reliability, flow control and error correction

6 Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
* positive and positive
positive and negative
* negative and negative

7 Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)

glass fibers
* copper
* gold
plastic
silicon
* silver

8 During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)

bit speed
* attenuation
wire map
saturation limit
* analog bandwidth

9 The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)

between workstation and backbone switch
between individual workstations
* between backbone switches
* between enterprise server and switch
* on aggregate access links

10 What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?

a transducer
a transmitter
* a transceiver
a transponder
a port replicator

11 An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?

* 1
2
3
4

12 Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)

* frame format
media
connectors
* timing
* multi-part encoding

13 Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?

the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
* the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

14 For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)

* inter-building connection
mid-length voice
video conferencing
* vertical wiring
* horizontal wiring
diagonal wiring

15 John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?

* collision domain extended
an increased number of collision domains
increased network performance
increased bandwidth
extended bandwidth

16 "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?

MAC request
* ARP request
ping
Telnet
proxy ARP

17 Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?

encapsulation
latency
* segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended

18 The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)

anonymous FTP servers
telnet sessions
* video over IP applications
NAS services
* ARP requests
* RIP updates

19 Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

resolve routing loops
eliminate Split Horizon errors
limit collisions
* resolve switching loops

20 Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?

ARP
RARP
* Proxy ARP
Proxy RARP

21 Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?

session
transport
* network
data link

22 Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?

physical
data link
* network
transport
session

23 Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)

RIPv2
* IGRP
OSPF
BGP
RIPv1
* EIGRP

24 A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?

255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224

25 A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

26 When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?

1022
510
254
126
30
* 6

27 If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)

NFS
ASCII
* TFTP
IMAP
* FTP
UDP


28 What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)

a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
* a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
* a control connection between the client and server

29 Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)

TFTP
SNMP
* POP3
* SMTP
* IMAP4
postoffice

30 What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?

a fault
a short
* an open
a split
a good map

31 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

* Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

32 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* rollover
patch cable

33 What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?

The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
* The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
The maximum frame length is 10 octets.


34 How is a MAC address represented?

four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
six hexadecimal digits
* twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits

35 To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?

the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule

36 Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?

802.11a
* 802.11b
802.11c
802.11d

37 Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* Internet Protocol (IP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

38 Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)

configuring the e-mail client
* installing NIC drivers
configuring IP network settings
* connecting the network cable
using FTP to download application software updates

39 Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet

40 Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)

* It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
* It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

41 In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?

coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
* fiber optic

42 What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?

25
15
* 10
5
2

43 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?

* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters

44 Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?

government
education
network
* non-profit

45 Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?

* DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet

46 Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?

www
http://
/teacher
* awsb.ca

47 Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?

ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255

48 Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

bit
frame
packet
* segment

49 Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)

* transistor
microprocessor
power supply
* capacitor
* light emitting diode
hard disk

50 What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)

It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
* It provides a service to the network layer.
* It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
* Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

51 Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)

127.0.39.1
* 111.9.28.30
* 123.1.2.132
128.50.38.2
* 105.1.34.1
0.23.92.3

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Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11


1 Which of the following characteristics of TCP is provided by windowing?

connectionless data transport
flow control *
well-known ports
best-effort delivery
2 Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

FTP *
TCP
UDP
HTTP *


3 Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)

19
20 *
21 *
22
4 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?

FTP
TFTP *
SNMP
TCP
DHCP
5 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)

no guaranteed delivery of datagrams *
connection-oriented
provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
reliability provided by the application layer *
connectionless *
utilizes sliding windowing techniques
6 Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?

SNMP
TFTP *
UDP
TCP
7 During data transfer, what are the main responsibilities of the receiving host? (Choose two.)

throughput
encapsulation
acknowledgment *
bandwidth
segmentation
reassembly *
8 Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?

DNS *
WINS
DHCP
Telnet
9 Which SNMP component is responsible for using the majority of memory resources?

network management system *
agents
managed devices
secure ports
10 What does TCP use to begin the three-way handshaking process?

The destination host sends an ACK segment.
The sending host sends a SYN segment. *
The sending host sends a SYN and ACK segment.
The destination host sends a SYN segment.
11 Which of the following SNMP components would a router be considered?

network management system
agents
managed devices *
secure ports
12 Which of the following describes the operation of TCP window size?

Window size increases as all data transfers.
Window size is the TCP process used prepare data for transmission.
Window size is decreased if packets are lost. *
Window size of 15 means that the next byte expected is byte number 15.
13 End systems use port numbers to select the proper application. What is the smallest port number that can be dynamically assigned by a host system?

1
64
128
256
512
1024 *
14 Which of the following are components of SNMP? (Choose three.)

network management system *
protocol analyzer
managed devices *
secure ports
agents *
protocol inspector
15 Which of the following protocols use TCP? (Choose two.)

FTP *
DHCP
TFTP
HTTP *
SYN

16 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?

indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
reassemble the segments into the correct order
identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
track different conversations crossing the network at the same time *
17 Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for dialog control?

application *
presentation
session
transport
18 At which layer of the TCP/IP model does Telnet operate?

application *
presentation
session
transport
internet
network access
19 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?

SMTP
SNMP *
FTP
TFTP
EIGRP
20 Which protocols can be used to transfer files between systems? (Choose two)

TFTP *
DNS
SNMP
FTP *
DHCP
21 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP *
POP
SNMP
22 Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

TCP *
SMTP
UDP
SNMP
23 Which acknowledgement number should be sent by the receiver shown in the graphic?

3
4
6
7 *
9
12
24 Which features allow TCP to reliably and accurately transport and regulate the flow of information from source to destination? (Choose three.)

sliding windows *
buffers
asynchronization
sequencing numbers *
acknowledgments *
segmentation
25 TCP/IP connection-oriented sessions begin with a three-way handshake. Which items describe the handshake process? (Choose three.)

acknowledge *
synchronize *
encapsulate
negotiate *
create
propagate
26 Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?

government
education
network
non-profit *

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
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Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10

1 Which of the following is the address that is changed when a frame is received at a router interface?

IP address
IPX address
* MAC address
Port address

2 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

session
* transport
network
data link



3 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
* time-to-live
header checksum

4 Which processes occur each time a packet is switched from one router interface to another? (Choose two.)

* encapsulation
ARP
RARP
* de-encapsulation
circuit switching
FastForward switching

5 Which of the following are routed protocols? (Choose three.)

* IP
BGP
* XNS
RIP
OSPF
* DECnet

6 Which of the following describes path determination at the network layer?

router compares available ARP table information to select the best path
router uses routed protocol to determine the best path for data transmission
* router compares available routing table information to select the best path
router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment to route data through
switch compares available routing table information to select the best path

7 What do routers use to exchange topological information?

protocol styles
* routing protocols
MAC addresses
RARP addresses
network topologies

8 Which of the following are metrics used with routing protocols? (Choose three.)

algorithm
* delay
convergence
* cost
* reliability
optimization

9 Which of the following are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

RIPv1
IGRP
* OSPF
* IS-IS
EIGRP
RIPv2

10 Which of the following are benefits of subnetting? (Choose three.)

* smaller broadcast domains
larger collision domains
* low-level security provided
fewer broadcast domains
* increased address flexibility
larger broadcast domains

11 Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?

172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
* 172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0

12 A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

13 How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using the default subnet mask?

1
4
8
14
* 16
24

14 Which two statements are accurate about subnet addressing? (Choose two.)

Host bits are all equal to 1 in the network address.
* Host bits of the network address are all equal to 0.
Network address host bits are equal in value to the value of the fourth octet of the subnet mask.
* Host bits of the broadcast address are all equal to 1.
Host bits of the broadcast address are all equal to 0.
Host bits of the broadcast address are equal in value to the value of the fourth octet of the subnet mask.

15 How many usable subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 to a Class B network?

256
255
* 254
512
511
510

16 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
* binary ANDing

17 Which statements describe the effect a broadcast storm has on networking equipment? (Choose two.)

* Switches forward broadcast storms.
* By default, routers do not forward broadcast storms.
Switches provide security and bandwidth control to overcome broadcast storms.
Routers forward broadcast storms.

18 What information is listed in routing tables? (Choose three.)

* protocol types
encapsulations
* metrics
MAC addresses
inbound interfaces
* outbound interfaces

19 Which routing metric is used by RIPv1?

bandwidth
load
delay
reliability
* hop count
cost

20 Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)

Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
* Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
* Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21 What are the differences between routers and switches? (Choose two.)

Routers and switches operate exactly the same.
* Routers make forwarding decisions using IP addresses, but switches use MAC addresses.
Routers forward broadcasts and switches do not.
* Switches forward broadcasts and routers do not.
Routers operate faster than switches.
Switches provide more security than routers.

22 What are two functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two.)

defines the format and use of the fields within a packet
* provides processes for sharing route information
* communicates with other routers
provides MAC address information that allows a router to forward data over a WAN
determines the OUI

23 Which of the following describes IP?

IP is the primary layer 4 protocol used on the Internet.
IP is a reliable protocol.
* IP is a connectionless protocol.
IP is designed to operate over Ethernet.

24 How many usable class C subnetworks are created with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224?

1
2
3
4
5
* 6

25 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?

6
14
* 30
62

26 Which are the network and broadcast addresses when given an IP host address of 198.101.6.55/28? (Choose two.)

198.101.6.0
198.101.6.32
* 198.101.6.48
198.101.6.57
* 198.101.6.63
198.101.6.255

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9


1 What steps must occur for devices to communicate between different physical network segments? (Choose two.)

learning the IP address of the source device
* obtaining the MAC address of the intermediate device
* transferring the data packets from one network segment to another to reach the destination host
obtaining the IP address of the local host



2 What should a system administrator consider when assigning an IP address to a network server? (Choose two.)

Servers should have addresses assigned dynamically through a DHCP.
* Servers with a dynamically assigned IP address would be difficult to locate on a network.
Servers with periodically changed IP addresses have little effect on a network.
* Servers should have IP addresses assigned statically by a network system administrator.

3 Several solutions have been developed to expand the number of IP addresses available for public use. Which technologies are solutions? (Choose three.)

DHCP
* classless interdomain routing
a new 64 bit addressing scheme
* Network Address Translation
* IPv6
IPv5

4 Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)

decimal number in first octet between 127-191
decimal number in first octect between 128-192
* decimal number in first octect between 128-191
first bit of binary IP address is 0
* first two bits of binary IP address are 10
first three bits of IP binary address are 110

5 Which operations are performed by IP? (Choose three.)

* routing packets to remote hosts
providing a physical addressing scheme
defining frames
* defining packets
* transferring data between the internet layer and the network access layer
transferring data between the internet layer and the application layer

6 Name the protocols that operate at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model. (Choose two.)

* TCP
IP
* UDP
FTP
NDS
IPX

7 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)

address resolution
* end-to-end communication
* flow control
* reliability of data delivery
path determination
data representation

8 Which OSI layers relate to the network access layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

transport
* physical
session
network
* data link
application

9 Which model would a networking professional use to better understand the data communication process?

* OSI model
IEEE model
ANSI model
Internetworking model

10 Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?

* network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer

11 Which layer is considered to be the host-to-network layer of the TCP/IP model?

application
presentation
transport
* network access
data link
internet

12 Which of the following would be a function of ICMP?

* It provides control and messaging capabilities.
It provides address resolution services.
It supports e-mail functionality.
It enables file transfer between hosts.
It allows remote login to distant hosts.

13 Which TCP/IP layer provides services that support a logical connection between the sending and receiving hosts?

application
network
IP
* transport
presentation
session

14 In the network shown in the accompanying graphic, where would it be appropriate to use private addressing ?

only area a
only area b
only area c
areas a and b
* areas a and c
areas a and b and c

15 In what ways are the TCP/IP and OSI models the same? (Choose three.)

* Both have an application layer.
Both have a physical layer.
Both assume circuit-switched networks.
Both have network access and data-link layers.
* Both have similar transport and network layers.
* Both assume packet-switched networks.

16 What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
Department of the Navy (DoN)
* Department of Defense (DoD)
Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
Stanford University

17 How would you explain to a client that IP is unreliable?

It offers a best chance attempt of routing data, but usually delivers data to remote hosts without a problem.
* It performs no error checking and correction services, relying on the upper layers for those services.
It simply broadcasts the data out on all available paths, thus ensuring delivery.
When applied in self-healing networks, it is mostly reliable.
It uses a best guess algorithm to route and deliver data, resulting in a robust network.

18 Which of the following are included in the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three.)

UDP
* SNMP
Netware / IPX
* TFTP
* FTP
NOS

19 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

* 254
255
256
510
511
512

20 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

21 What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?

192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
* 192.168.32.255

22 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 128.128.32.0 to create at least 1000 host addresses per network?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8


1 Which switching mode describes a switch that transfers a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is read?

fragment-free
* cut-through
store-and-forward
latency forwarding

2 What does a switch broadcast to let other switches know of its existence on the LAN?

STP
STA
BDPU
BPU
* BPDU



3 Which of the following network types uses networking devices to extend the distances that cable can be run?

length/shared media
* extended shared media
point-to-point network
extended point-to-point network
multiple access/point-to-point


4 Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?

encapsulation
latency
* segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended

5 While working on her computer, Mary noticed longer than normal network data transfers. Mary investigates the problem and notices that her co-worker John has been hosting an online video conference. What is the network probably experiencing?

collision storm
* broadcast storm
IP storm
data rain storm

6 Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision?

* destination IP address
MAC address
source IP address
encapsulation address
default gateway

7 A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?

bridge
hub
* router
transceiver

8 What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?

* no error checking
a decrease in error checking
decrease in number of collision domains
decrease in bandwidth
increased latency

9 Which of the following would alleviate the problem of excessive collisions in a LAN? (Choose two.)

* reduce the size of collision domains
reduce number of broadcast domains
add extra hubs
* add extra managed switches
add additional transceivers
increase the length of UTP cable runs

10 Which of the following protocols is used to eliminate loops?

* STP
BDPU
UDP
EIGRP
learning

11 Which of the following are considered Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)

router
switch
* repeater
bridge
* hub

12 Which of the following are not to be exceeded when implementing the 5-4-3-2-1 Rule? (Choose three.)

five broadcast domains
* four hubs
three routers
* three host segments
* one collision domain

13 Which of the following describes the concept of full-duplex mode?

traffic passing in one direction at a time with no collisions
traffic passing faster downstream than upstream
* traffic passing equally in both directions with no collisions
traffic passing faster upstream than downstream

14 Which switching mode results in the lowest amount of latency and provides no error checking?

* cut-through
fragment-free
store-and-forward
synchronous

15 What impact does a bridge have on a network? (Choose two.)

reduces the number collision domains
* increases number of collision domains
adds additional broadcast domains
* has no impact on broadcast domains
reduces the length of the shared media

16 Which items are contributors to latency in a switched network? (Choose two.)

* circuit delays
* software delays
incorrect MAC addressing
too many collision domains


17 Which LAN devices make frame forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

hub
router
* bridge
* switch
transceiver

18 What does a switch build as it reads MAC addresses that pass through it?

Routing Topology table
* Content Addressable Memory table
Store and Forward list
Cut-through domain
MAC Route Address table

19 What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?

discard frame
ignore frame
send frame to appropriate port
* send frame to all ports except source port

20 A switch reads the first 64 bytes of a data field and forwards data, before the entire data field has been read. Which switching method allows this?

store and forward
cut-through
* fragment-free
asymmetric
symmetric

21 Which switching method allows a switch to receive the entire frame before sending it out the destination port?

* store and forward
cut-through
fragment-free
asymmetric

22 What does a workstation broadcast to learn an unknown MAC address?

RARP request
* ARP request
STA request
STP request

23 Which LAN switching mode has the lowest latency?

* cut-through
fragment-free
latency forwarding
store-and-forward

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7


1 Which of the following has limited the bandwidth of fiber based Ethernet? (Choose three.)

* emitter technology
absolute fiber light-carrying capacities
theoretical limits of fiber capacity
* fiber manufacturing processes
* detector technology
angles and curves in the fiber run



2 Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)

100BASE-5
100BASE2
1000BASE-F
* 100BASE-FX
* 100BASE-TX

3 Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)

* Category 5 UTP
* Category 5e UTP
* Category 3 UTP
coaxial cable
multi-mode fiber
single mode fiber

4 Why would an organization choose to implement twisted pair cabling over coaxial cabling? (Choose two.)

* cheaper
* easier to install
proprietary
used in most older networks
easy to make wiring errors
no limitations to the length of each segment

5 For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (Choose three.)

RJ-11
BNC connectors
RJ-48 patch cables
* RJ-45 connectors
* Category 5 UTP cables
* hubs or switches

6 Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)

* 10BASE2
* 10BASE5
* 10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
100BASE-TX

7 Which of the following Ethernet technologies share the same timing parameters? (Choose three.)

* 10BASE2
* 10BASE5
* 10BASE-T
100BASE-TX
100BASE-FX
100BASE-RX

8 Which of the following common networking problems is eliminated when an Ethernet network uses separate transmit and receive wire pairs and a switched topology?

* collisions on the physical bus
single segment distance limitations
the maximum bandwidth available on CAT 3 wiring
Multi-port bridge replication errors
CSCD/MA maximum repeater rules

9 Which class of repeater changes between one Ethernet implementation and another?

* Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

10 Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Control method views the link?

ring
shared bus
* point-to-point
star
extended star

11 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?

* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters

12 Which of the following describe the Gigabit Ethernet bit patterns created at the physical layer?

pulses
triads
frames
* symbols
icons

13 What is the most important aspect to consider when designing a 10BASE-T architecture?

specifying the correct category of cable in the design
minimizing the number of switches in the design
maximizing the use of hubs
* minimizing the delay between distant stations

14 To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?

the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule

15 100BASE-TX operates in which transmission modes? (Choose two.)

reverse simplex
* full-duplex
* half-duplex
full-biplex
single phase biplex

16 Which of the following are common to all versions of Gigabit Ethernet? (Choose three.)

packet size
* frame format
medium
* timing
* transmission
wavelength

17 How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?

two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
* all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6


1 What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.)

* A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.
Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retransmission of the damaged packet.
The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each station may begin retransmitting.
* The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data.
* The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.



2 Which of the following are the functions of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

* transmitting and receiving data packets
releasing a token when the network is clear
* detecting errors within data packets or on the network
passing a token to each station on the network
* decoding data packets and checking them for valid addresses before passing them to the upper layers of the OSI model

3 Which of the following is included in the frame address field? (Choose two.)

source IP address
destination IP address
destination subnet mask
* source MAC address
* destination MAC address

4 Which options below are field names of a generic frame? (Choose three.)

IP header
voltage reference
* data
description
* length
* frame check sequence

5 Ethernet standard specifications limit network service interruption. Select the items that describe the standards. (Choose three.)

minimum segment length
* maximum segment length
minimum number of stations per segment
* maximum number of stations per segment
minimum number of repeaters between segments
* maximum number of repeaters between segments

6 Which characteristics of Ethernet contribute to its widespread use? (Choose three.)

* ease of maintenance
collision free technology
* scalability
* low cost of installation
compatibility with 802.5 standard
collision avoidance capabilities

7 What does the word "Base" indicate in 10Base2?

The number standard used.
* Baseband signaling is used.
Only a portion of the transmission medium is used.
Broadband signaling is used.

8 Where does the MAC address originate?

DHCP server database
configured by the administrator
* burned into ROM on the NIC card
network configuration on the computer
included in the creation of the processor chip

9 What is the length of a MAC address?

8 bits
8 bytes
24 bits
24 bytes
* 48 bits
48 bytes

10 Which statements below are true about Ethernet? (Choose three.)

addresses the needs of Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model
first released as a Xerox proprietary standard
* essentially the same as 802.3 standards
* bandwidth can be increased without changing the underlying technology
essentially the same as 802.2 standards
* original idea developed at the University of Hawaii

11 How is a MAC address represented?

four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
six hexadecimal digits
* twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits

12 Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)

collisionless environment
* non-deterministic
deterministic
* uses first-come, first-served approach
uses a token to transmit data

13 What is the name of the Layer 2 Protocol Data Unit(PDU)?

packet
* frame
bit
data
segment

14 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
* any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

15 Which of the following are features of a Token Ring network? (Choose two.)

* collisionless environment
non-deterministic
* deterministic
uses CSMA/CD
prone to collisions

16 In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)

application
session
transport
network
* data link
* physical

17 Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)

* Logical Link Control
Logical Layer Control
* Media Access Control
Logical Link Communication
Media Access Communication
Physical Access Communication

18 Which ports on a hub forward traffic?

only to the port where the destination host resides
to the ports in all other collision domains
* all ports except the originating port
all ports

19 Which of the following statements about full-duplex Ethernet operation are true? (Choose two.)

Full duplex is supported on shared media.
In full duplex, only one station may transmit at a time.
* Full duplex is preferred over half duplex in link establishment negotiation.
All implementations of Ethernet can support both half duplex and full duplex.
* Two methods of achieving a full duplex are auto-negotiation and administrative configuration.

20 How do Ethernet stations respond to collisions on the network? (Choose three.)

* After the collison is detected by all stations, a backoff algorithm is implemented.
* Each station continues transmitting for a short while after a collison is detected.
All stations that were involved in the collision will negotiate priority transmission status for use after the delay period.
* When a workstation delay period expires, it will attempt to gain access to the networking media
The delay period is the same length for every collision.

21 How are collisions detected on an Ethernet network?

Stations identify the altered FCS field on the colliding packets.
* The signal amplitude on the networking media is higher than normal.
Traffic on the network cannot be detected due to a blockage
The signal amplitude on the networking media is lower than normal.

22 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
* is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

23 Which of the following describe Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

* 24 bit OUI and 24 bit serial number
32 bit network and 48 bit host address
* 6 pairs of hex digits
48 hex digits
logical host address
* physical address

24 Which IEEE standard defines a token ring network?

802.1
802.3
* 802.5
802.11b
802.11g

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7
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CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5

1 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

* Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

2 Which of the following companies are responsible for creating and implementing the first Ethernet LAN specifications? (Choose three.)

* Intel
Cisco
* Digital
* Xerox
Microsoft
Hewlett Packard



3 Which type of connector supports 100BASE-T Ethernet over Category 5e UTP?

BNC
* RJ-45
S/T MIC
RJ-46

4 In which of the following situations would a straight-through cable be used? (Choose three.)

router to router
router to PC
* router to switch
* PC to hub
switch to hub
* switch to PC

5 What are the reasons for the Four Repeater Rule of 10 Mbps Ethernet? (Choose two.)

to reduce total attenuation
to prevent microsegmentation
* to prevent late collisions
to prevent bit slippage
* to limit latency

6 Which of the following are benefits of wireless networks when compared to wired networks? (Choose two.)

higher data speeds
better security
* mobility
less expensive NIC cards
* no need to run cables to hosts
no transceivers required

7 Which of the following are hub types? (Choose three.)

LAN
core
* active
* passive
* intelligent
convergent

8 Which of the following are other names for a hub? (Choose two.)

* concentrator
transceiver
switch
bridge
* multiport repeater
active host

9 Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)

centralized security
* easy to create
very scalable
* no centralized equipment required
* centralized administrator not required
centralized control of assets

10 What are advantages of client/server networks? (Choose three.)

* centralized security
single point of failure
* centralized backups
lower operating costs
* enhanced network services
users control their own resources

11 What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?

25
15
* 10
5
2

12 What are the two basic functions of a switch? (Choose two.)

* switching data frames
cost effective operation
switching Layer 3 traffic
* build and maintain tables
isolating packets on the LAN

13 What must be connected to the DB-15 AUI port to provide connectivity for an RJ-45 terminated cable?

hub
joystick
* transceiver
router
WIC
NIC

14 At which layer of the OSI model is a NIC classified?

physical
* data link
network
transport

15 Which protocol is typically used to carry data over an ISDN B channel?

* PPP
SLIP
PAP
Frame Relay

16 An ISDN BRI connection is composed of how many bearer channels?

1
* 2
3
4

17 Which port on a router is used with a modem to make configuration changes?

Console
* Aux
BRI
Ethernet

18 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* rollover
patch cable

19 Which devices provide signal clocking for WAN serial transmission? (Choose two.)

switch
* DCE
server
DTE
* CSU/DSU

20 Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?

source MAC
source IP
* destination MAC
destination IP
network IP address

21 Which of the following are technologies used in wireless data transmission? (Choose two.)

Cat5
* IR
TIA/EIA
* RF
IEEE

22 In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)

* 1 and 2
3 and 5
7 and 8
* 3 and 6
5 and 7
1 and 3

23 Which layer of the OSI model addresses cable and connector type?

application
presentation
transport
network
data link
* physical

24 What is the most widely used LAN technology?

FDDI
coaxial
* Ethernet
token-ring

25 Select the correct standards and pin locations for the Green/White and Green wire pair when building a crossover cable. (Choose two.)

* 568A = 1 and 2
568A = 3 and 6
568A = 4 and 5
568B = 1 and 2
* 568B = 3 and 6
568B = 4 and 5

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4

1 Which of the following describes frequency?

length of each wave
height of each wave
* number of cycles each second
amount of time between each wave

2 Which of the following describe sine waves? (Choose three.)

They do not continuously vary with time.
* They repeat the same pattern at regular intervals.
* They occur naturally and change regularly over time.
They are artificially created and do not occur naturally.
* No two adjacent points on a graph have the same value.
They have continuously varying patterns that do not repeat.



3 Identify common ways in which the capacities of communication systems are measured? (Choose two.)

analog bandwidth
resistance capacity
carrier bandwidth
polarity capacity
* digital bandwidth

4 Why would fiber optic installations be favored over copper between buildings? (Choose two.)

cheaper installation
larger media
* attentuation properties
* no electrical interference
easier termination and installation

5 How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)

+5 volts/-5 volts
0 volts/5 volts
* light/no light
high to low electrical transition
low to high electrical transition
* increasing/decreasing light intensity

6 What are some of the factors that contribute to attenuation in a copper media? (Choose three.)

type of voltage used
* long cable lengths
jitter signal sent by the transmitting device
* defective connectors
* energy leaks through the insulation of the cable
low signal frequencies

7 What problems are associated with impedance mismatches in copper cabling? (Choose two.)

* jitter
signal absorption
termination of signals
* reflection
NEXT

8 What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)

* noise
resistance mismatch
jitter
* crosstalk
attenuation

9 What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?

a fault
a short
* an open
a split
a good map

10 What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in long Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)

* type of media
number of users
type of users
* length of cable
type of electrical equipment

11 Which of the following are tests specified by the TIA/EIA-568-B standard for copper cable? (Choose three.)

signal harmonics
conductive response
* wire map
signal absorption
* insertion loss
* propagation delay

12 Which of the following describe amplitude?

* the height of each wave
the length of each wave
the number of waves each second
the amount of time between each wave

13 In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?

coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
* fiber optic

14 Which of the following are true concerning crosstalk? (Choose three.)

** FEXT is less of a problem than is NEXT.
Using frequency step sizes that are larger than those specified by the TIA/EIA standard has no effect on link fault detection.
** A cable with a NEXT measurement of 30 dB would be considered a better cable than one which has a NEXT measurement of 10 dB.
** NEXT needs to be measured from each pair to each other pair in a UTP link, and from both ends of the link.
FEXT is determined by injecting a signal into a pair of wires and measuring the signal strength on the other end of the same pair of wire.

15 Which frequencies are used by a cable tester to measure attenuation?

the lowest frequencies that the cable is rated to support
* the highest frequencies that the cable is rated to support
frequencies from 20 Hz to 20 kHz in 20 Hz increments
10 kHz and 100 GHz

16 Which of the following are true about square waves? (Choose three.)

* They repeat the same pattern at regular intervals.
They continuously vary with time.
* They represent digital signals.
* They do not continuously vary with time.
They occur naturally and change regularly over time.
They represent analog signals.

17 What is the purpose of shielding in copper based media? (Choose two.)

* protect the data signal from noise generated by electrical signal within the cable
ground the cable and prevent electrical shocks
* protect the data signal from external sources of noise
decrease attenuation and increase the length possible for the cable run
ground the cable so that the zero volt reference point is accurate

18 Why are pulses important in digital communication?

create the timing mechanism for data transmission
* determine the value of the data being transmitted
damage data transmissions
signal collisions in data streams

19 Two wires from different wire pairs are connected to the wrong pins on both ends of a cable. What is the wire fault name for this connection?

open
short
* split-pair
transposed-pair

20 Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)

near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
* opens
propagation delay
return loss
* reversed-pair faults
* short circuits

21 Which one of the following cable tests verifies that all eight wires are connected to the correct pins on both ends of the cable?

cable length
insertion loss
near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
propagation delay
return loss
* wire map test

22 To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?

that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
* that the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

23 What types of shielding are used in shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable? (Choose two.)

insulating material
lexan infused
* braided conductive
* foil-screened
rubber molding

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
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Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3

1 Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
*positive and positive
positive and negative
*negative and negative

2 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

*twisted pair cable
T style connectors
*baseband transmission
10 gigabits per second data rate
*10 megabits per second data rate
decimal encoded data transmission



3 Which of the following are benefits of coaxial cable within a LAN environment? (Choose two.)

easier to install than UTP
* less expensive than fiber
*requires fewer repeaters than UTP
easily accommodates additions to network
faster transport speeds than fiber

4 Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?

802.11a
*802.11b
802.11c
802.11d

5 When working with computer circuitry, what should technicians try to avoid?

electrical switch direction
electrostatic switch detector
electronic storage device
electronic series direction
*electrostatic discharge

6 What occurs when a voltage source is connected to a completed electrical circuit?

current will decrease in the circuit
resistance will increase in the circuit
resistance will decrease in the circuit
electrons will flow from the positive to the negative terminals
*electrons will flow from the negative terminal to the positive terminal

7 How is the current determined if the voltage and resistance of an electrical circuit are known?

Add the voltage and resistance.
*Divide the voltage by the resistance.
Divide the resistance by the voltage.
Multiply the voltage by the resistance.
Subtract the resistance from the voltage.
This problem cannot be solved with the given information.

8 What is the unit of measurement for electrical current?

volt
ohm
*ampere
watt
kilowatt

9 Which of the following is one of the biggest sources of connection problems in coaxial cable installations?

core conductor defects
*poor shield connections
poor core conductor connections
poor "T" connectors
open circuits

10 Which of the following materials severely restrict the flow of electrons?

conductors
ion solutions
semiconductors
*insulators
silicon based materials
carbon objects

11 What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?

shielding
magnetism
*cancellation
insulation
properly grounded connections
RJ-45 connectors

12 Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC? (Choose two.)

RJ-11
RJ-12
*RJ-45
DB-8
*DB-9
DB-10

13 What is the maximum transmission rate of a device compliant with the basic 802.11a standard?

27 Mbps
*54 Mbps
81 Mbps
108 Mbps

14 Which of the following terms refers to electrical pressure?

ampere
*voltage
wattage
impedance
resistance

15 What is the most important property of the class of materials known as semiconductors?

A semiconductor has many free electrons.
A semiconductor is the best conductor of electricity.
A semiconductor has the ability to prevent the flow of free electrons.
*A semiconductor has the ability to precisely control the flow of electrons.
A semiconductor can change from insulator to resistor.

16 Which type of cable has the color of the wires in pins #1 and #2 on one end appear on the other end at pins #3 and #6, and vice-versa?

rollover cable
straight-through cable
*crossover cable
console cable
hub connector cable

17 Which adapter is used to connect a cable from the console port of the router to a PC?

RJ-11 to DB-9
RJ-11 to RJ-45
RJ-12 to RJ-11
*RJ-45 to DB-9
RJ-45 to RJ-45
DB-9 to DB-9

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 7
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2


1 Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)

Ethernet
*Token Ring
*FDDI
Frame Relay
ISDN

2 Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)

GHzps
*kbps
*Mbps
Nbps
MHzps
*Gbps



3 Which of the following are typical features that determine throughput? (Choose two.)

types of passwords used on servers
type of Layer 3 protocol used
*network topology
length of the network cable
*number of users on the network

4 Which protocols are commonly part of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

*FTP
*DNS
UDP
TCP
*HTTP

5 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

*Packets are put into frames.
Data is packaged into a packet.
Data is segmented into segments.
Data is converted for Internet travel.
*An address is added to identify the directly connected device.

6 Which device is used to connect LANs that are geographically separated?

hub
bridge
*router
repeater

7 Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

bit
frame
packet
*segment

8 What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)

It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
*It provides a service to the network layer.
*It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
*Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

9 Which of the following is true regarding network bandwidth?

Bandwidth is free.
*Bandwidth has capacity limits.
Bandwidth never increases.
Bandwidth is not a key factor in analyzing network performance.

10 Which of the following is the official name for the address assigned to each network interface card (NIC) by its manufacturer?

NIC address
*MAC address
IP address
Source Address

11 Which physical network topology uses a single backbone cable and connects all hosts directly to this cable?

ring
star
*bus
mesh

12 Which OSI and TCP/IP layer appears in both models yet has different functions in each?

transport
session
*application
Internet
physical

13 Which of the following topologies are considered logical topologies? (Choose two.)

bus
*token-passing
star
mesh
*broadcast
hierarchical

14 During the data encapsulation process, how is the data broken down by the transport layer?

packets
*segments
data bits
frames

15 Which of the following describe a LAN? (Choose two.)

*operates within a limited geographical area
provides dial-up connectivity
uses serial interfaces to allow operation at lower speeds
*connects physically adjacent devices
ensures single access to specialty hosts

16 Which of the following are considered valid types of VPNs? (Choose three.)

internal
* intranet
external
*extranet
local
*access

17 Which of the following physical topologies connects all cables to a central point of concentration?

ring
*star
mesh
bus

18 Refer to the figure. What is the maximum possible throughput obtained end to end on this network when the user on Lab A communicates with the user on LAB D?

The maximum possible throughput is based on the largest connection, the T3.
*The maximum possible throughput is based on the smallest connection, the T1.
There is not enough data to determine the maximum possible throughput.
The maximum possible throughput is the T1 plus T3 speed divided by 2.




19 What is the name of the Layer 1 PDU?

segment
packet
frame
*bit

20 Which layer of the TCP/IP model encapsulates TCP segments into packets?

application
transport
*internet
network
physical

21 Which layer of the TCP/IP model deals with quality-of-service issues such as reliability, flow control, and acknowledgement?

application
internet
* transport
network

22 From the following list, choose the data packaging type that is created at the data link layer during the data encapsulation process.

packets
segments
data bits
* frames

23 Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device sends information.
segments
bits
packets
data
frames


1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
*4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4

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CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 12
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 11
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 10
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 9
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 8
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CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 6
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 5
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 4
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 3
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 2
CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 1

Labels: MCSE / CCNA

All CCNA (V.31) Semester-1 Question - Answers- Paper 1 (Solved)

1 Why were TCP/IP protocols developed?

To insure that error correction of each packet takes place.
*To allow cooperating computers to share resources across a network.
To allocate resources that are needed for operating a computer on a LAN.
To determine the "best path" decision making when forwarding packets of data.

2 Which of the following are functions of a web browser without the addition of plug-ins? (Choose three.)



updates IRQ's
*receives information
*requests information
*contacts web servers
displays flash animation
displays Quicktime movies

3 What is the numeric base of hexadecimal numbers?

Base 2
Base 8
Base 10
*Base 16
Base 32

4 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

128
254
255
*256
512
1024

5 Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010
11011011
11110110
*11100111
11100101
11101110

6 Convert the hexadecimal number CD into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

197
199
201
203
*205
207

7 Convert the hexadecimal number 19 into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

19
91
52
* 25
36
63

8 Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)

Acrobat
*Internet Explorer
Macromedia Flash
*Netscape Navigator
Quicktime
World Wide Web

9 Which of the following are valid hexadecimal numbers? (Choose three.)

* DEF3
1G45
*1F35
DH3F
* 453
X35F

10 What are the requirements for an Internet connection? (Choose three.)

remote host
* physical connection
* logical connection
local connection
* application

11 Which of the following interprets the data and displays the information in an understandable form for the user to see?

*application
protocol stack
remote devices
logical connection
physical connection

12 Which of the following are considered to be "always on" services? (Choose two.)

* DSL
ISDN
56kbps
* cable modem

13 Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?

ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255

14 If you perform a Boolean AND on the IP address 172.16.20.23 using the subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which of the following is the subnetwork address?

172.16.0.0
*172.16.16.0
172.16.20.0
172.16.20.16
172.16.24.0

15 Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network? (Choose two.)

router
*modem
CD Rom
* network interface card

16 When purchasing a NIC for a computer, which of the following factors need to be considered? (Choose three.)

*protocols
*system bus
brand of PC
web browser
*type of media used on the network

17 Which of the following describes a network interface card?

large circuit board that contains sockets for expansion cards
interface card capable of transferring more than one bit simultaneously and is used to connect external devices
*interface card inserted into a computer so that the computer can be connected to a network
interface card that can be used for parallel communication in which only 1 bit is transmitted at a time

18 Which statements best describe a physical connection? (Choose two.)

internet standard is TCP/IP
*could utilize modem or NIC
interprets data and displays information
*used to transfer data between PC and local network

19 Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?

NIC
CSU/DSU
router
* modem
telco switch

20 Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)

a single binary digit
*a grouping of eight binary digits
+5 volts of electricity
*a single addressable storage location
the value range from 0 to 127

21 Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct answer from the following list:

01111010
01110010
*01110100
01110110
01110111
01010110


CCNA (V.31) Semester-1- Question - Answers- Paper 13
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